AF Advanced C-IED Attack the Network (AtN) Left of the Boom

July 26, 2018 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to AF Advanced C-IED Attack the Network (AtN) Left of the Boom.

What are the key functions of a terrorist organization?
- Supply Chain, Recruiting, Funding, and People to Organize and Execute

Technical exploitation by theater laboratories starts with the evidence collected by people engaged in daily operational tasks, like ____?
- You

You see a host nation taking pictures of the facilities on your base, what do you do?
- Report the activity through the appropriate chain of command

So how do we get to the left of the boom?
- Attack the network at the root.

What are the two types of exploitation used to Attack the Network?
- Forensics and Technical

What are the two most common types of organizational structures used by terrorist groups?
- Networked and hierarchical

Explosive Ordinance Reconnaissance(EOR) Nov. 2016 (Updated)

July 26, 2018 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to Explosive Ordinance Reconnaissance(EOR) Nov. 2016 (Updated)

KC: Identify the false statement about CBUs

Dispensers themselves do not contain explosive or spring-pressure hazards

KC: Which of these characteristics of a missile differs from a rocket?

Missiles have a guidance system

KC: Which statement BEST describes the ordnance shown?

Both have sensitive fuses that could detonate if jarred in any way.

KC: Identify the false statement about land mines.

Land mines have self destruct timers and very sensitive movement sensor systems

KC: The key safety message to remember when encountering potential explosive hazards is

"If you didn't drop it, don't pick it up"

KC: What is the major hazard associated with conventional explosives?

Fragmentation

KC: Select the TRUE statement about Fuses

Do not use radios or cell phones within 25 feet of fuses

KC: Identify the FALSE statement about UXO hazards

A fuse is only dangerous when it is attached to or located near munitions

KC: How is this land mine type detonated?

Command-detonated

KC: What explosive threat description of a Booby trap is correct?

A new enemy bayonet and scabbard lying on the ground

KC: Identify the correct procedure for confirming UXO

While others are constructing the recommended barricade, make your report. To report via handheld radio be at least 25 feet from the UXO, to use a vehicle radio stay 100 feet away from the UXO

KC: During EOR actions, you discover a UXO approximately three inches in Diameter within 50 feet of a sandbagged hospital tent. The patients cannot be evacuated. Based on what you have learned, which is the best course of action?

Ensure hospital sandbags are sufficient according to AFTTP 3-4 and barricade the UXO. Isolate the UXO by shifting patients to the far side of the hospital.

KC: Identify the one protective measure that should not be taken when there is an explosive threat.

Ventilate

KC: Markers should be placed around the perimeter of a minefield at intervals of:

50 feet

KC: Select the false statement about 5/25 check procedures

Once they are completed you can remove the UXO

What is one indication that a UXO is a chemical bomb?

It may have a strong odor

Which is NOT a characteristic of a bomb?

They have a propulsion system

Which of these characteristics of a missile differs from a rocket?

Missiles have a guidance system

Which of these is a characteristic of a Combined Effects munition?

It can defeat armored vehicles and target personnel simultaneously

Which of these is not a type of air ordnance?

Rocket Propelled Grenades

Identify one TRUE statement about bombs.

Bombs use fins or parachutes for stabilization in flight

What is the dud rate of a typical Cluster Bomb Unit?

Cluster bombs units consist of what two parts?

The dispenser and payload.

Which of these is non-explosive hazard of a sub-munition?

Which of these is a true statement about unexploded sub-munitions?

They can detonate from the slightest movement

Which is NOT a characteristic of a bomb?

-They have a propulsion system

Identify one true statement about bombs?

-Bombs use fins or parachutes for stabilization

What is one indication that a UXO is a chemical bomb?

-It may have a strange odor

Which of these is a true statement about unexploded sub-munitions?

-They can detonate from the slightest movement

which of these characteristics of a missile differs from a rocket?

-Missiles have a guidance system

Which of these is not a type of air ordnance?

-Rocket propelled grenades

Cluster bombs consist of what two parts?

-The dispenser and the payload.

What is a characteristic of a combined effects munition?

-It can defeat armored vehicles and target personnel simultaneously

What is the dud rate of a typical cluster bomb unit?

-5%

Which of these is non-explosive hazard of a sub-munition?

-Spring Pressure Hazard

Which of these statements is not a characteristic of a landmine?

-They are remotely detonated

Which of these is a true statement about HEAT projectiles?

-The fuses can be activated by any type of movement

Which of these is a true statement about incendiary grenades?

-They burn at over 3500 degrees Fahrenheit and hot enough to melt an engine block

Which of these is a true statement about projectiles?

-All types of projectiles can have explosive fillers and fuzing

Which of these is a true statement about projectiles?

-Projectiles can be fin or spin stabilized

Which of these is NOT a type of projectile?

-Fuzeless shell

Which of these is a shoulder fired grenade with a propulsion motor?

-Rocket Propelled Grenade

How can white phosphorus be extinguished?

-It has to be smothered or burned up

Which of these is a true statement about grenades?

-Grenades can contain explosive and chemical fillers

Which of these are most likely to be used as a minefield?

-Any type of terrain

What causes the greatest damage in an explosion?

-Explosive blast

What occurs when the pressure of an explosion expands and tears the casing of the explosive?

-Fragmentation

75 pounds of explosives can propel fragments up to what distance?

-1 mile

Which of these BEST defines any conventional explosive weapon that that is capable of a high order of destruction or used in a manner to kill or injure large numbers of people?

-High yield explosive

Which of these items usually contains a not-so-obvious explosive hazard?

-Aircraft ejection seat

What inhalation hazard may be present in an abandoned enemy vehicle that has been fired on by armor-piercing projectiles?

-Radiological hazards

Identify the MOST correct statement about fuses

-Some fuzes are susceptible to transmissions from radios and cell-phones

What substance does a low order explosive resemble when exposed to air and sunlight?

-Dark brown or black rocks

Which of these is NOT a type of fuze?

-Head Fuze

Which of these explosive hazards is intentionally hidden from you?

-Booby traps

What term is used to describe an incomplete detonation, or complete detonation at a lower than maximum velocity?

-Low order detonation

What are UXOs?

-Military munitions that were supposed to detonate but didn't.

When calling in a UXO, what is the minimum safe distance for radio transmission?

-25 feet for handheld radios and 100 feet for vehicle radios

What is the minimum safe distance to a UXO for exposed personnel?

-300 meters

During which step of the 5 Cs should you fill out a 9-line EH report?

-Confirm

Which of these is NOT an indication of a buried UXO?

-Large Fragments

A barricade constructed around exposed resources to shelter it from overpressure and fragmentation is a(an):

-Protective barricade

What is EOR?

-A process to detect, mark, secure and report UXOs

A barricade constructed around a small or medium UXO to isolate the effects of an explosion is a :

-Suppresive barricade

Which of these is a TRUE statement about marking UXOs?

-Always mark the area, not the item

Which is part of the CONTROL step when there is a suspected UXO?

-Use barriers, cordon tape, personnel or any other means necessary

When marking the perimeter of a minefield, how far apart should the markers be spaced?

-15 meters

Which is NOT a characteristic of a bomb?

They have a propulsion system

Identify one true statement about bombs?

Bombs use fins or parachutes for stabilization

What is one indication that a UXO is a chemical bomb?

It may have a strange odor

Which of these is a true statement about unexploded sub-munitions?

They can detonate from the slightest movement

which of these characteristics of a missile differs from a rocket?

Missiles have a guidance system

Which of these is not a type of air ordnance?

Rocket propelled grenades

Cluster bombs consist of what two parts?

The dispenser and the payload.

What is a characteristic of a combined effects munition?

It can defeat armored vehicles and target personnel simultaneously

What is the dud rate of a typical cluster bomb unit?

Which of these is non-explosive hazard of a sub-munition?

Spring pressure hazard

Which of these statements is not a characteristic of a landmine?

They are remotely detonated

Which of these is a true statement about HEAT projectiles?

The fuses can be activated by any type of movement

Which of these is a true statement about incendiary grenades?

They burn at over 3500 degrees Fahrenheit and hot enough to melt an engine block

Which of these is a true statement about projectiles?

All types of projectiles can have explosive fillers and fuzing

Which of these is a true statement about projectiles?

Projectiles can be fin or spin stabilized

Which of these is NOT a type of projectile?

Fuzeless shell

Which of these is a shoulder fired grenade with a propulsion motor?

Rocket Propelled Grenade

How can white phosphorus be extinguished?

It has to be smothered or burned up

Which of these is a true statement about grenades?

Grenades can contain explosive and chemical fillers

Which of these are most likely to be used as a minefield?

Any type of terrain

What causes the greatest damage in an explosion?

Explosive blast

What occurs when the pressure of an explosion expands and tears the casing of the explosive?

Fragmentation

75 pounds of explosives can propel fragments up to what distance?

1 mile

Which of these BEST defines any conventional explosive weapon that that is capable of a high order of destruction or used in a manner to kill or injure large numbers of people?

High yield explosive

Which of these items usually contains a not-so-obvious explosive hazard?

Aircraft ejection seat

What inhalation hazard may be present in an abandoned enemy vehicle that has been fired on by armor-piercing projectiles?

Radiological hazards

Identify the MOST correct statement about fuses

Some fuzes are susceptible to electro-magnetic radiation, and transmissions from a cell-phone can cause them to detonate

What substance does a low order explosive resemble when exposed to air and sunlight?

Dark brown or black rocks

Which of these is NOT a type of fuze?

Head Fuze

Which of these explosive hazards is intentionally hidden from you?

Booby traps

What term is used to describe an incomplete detonation, or complete detonation at a lower than maximum velocity?

Low order detonation

What are UXOs?

Military munitions that were supposed to detonate but didn't.

When calling in a UXO, what is the minimum safe distance for radio transmission?

25 feet for handheld radios and 100 feet for vehicle radios

What is the minimum safe distance to a UXO for exposed personnel?

300 meters

During which step of the 5 Cs should you fill out a 9-line EH report?

Confirm

Which of these is NOT an indication of a buried UXO?

Large fragments

A barricade constructed around exposed resources to shelter it from overpressure and fragmentation is a(an):

Protective barricade

What is EOR?

A process to detect, mark, secure and report UXOs

A barricade constructed around a small or medium UXO to isolate the effects of an explosion is a :

Which of these is a TRUE statement about marking UXOs?

Always mark the area, not the item

Which is part of the CONTROL step when there is a suspected UXO?

Use barriers, cordon tape, personnel or any other means necessary

When marking the perimeter of a minefield, how far apart should the markers be spaced?

15 meters

EPRC Clinical Course 8hr

April 8, 2018 Guest User

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

Following a nuclear detonation, some of the casualties with survivable injuries are possibly contaminated with radiological material. Which of the below courses of action is most appropriate for the situation?

Treat all life-threatening injuries first.

An explosion casualty suffering from crush injuries of the lower extremities has been admitted to your hospital with severe hyperkalemia. What emergency treatment is NOT recommended?

Limit fluids.

A patient is suffering from painful, highly corrosive burns similar to acid, and wheals have begun to appear on the skin. Which vesicant (blister agent) is suspected?

Phosgene oxime

You are certain that your patient, who is now convulsing from nerve agent exposure, has already received three MARK 1/ATNAA kits and their diazepam. What else should be done?

All of the Above

Provide ventilator assistance, oxygen, and IV fluids
Administer more atropine to reduce secretions and relax the airway
Give more diazepam to prevent seizures

Wearing can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity

What type of laboratory test(s) would NOT be conducted if you suspect a patient has contracted plague?

Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry

Which of these are fast-acting compounds that attack oxygen-dependent tissues known to be particularly sensitive to these compounds?

Cyanide Compounds

In industry, cyanide compounds are widely used during:

All of the Above

Plastic production
Gold and silver extraction
Hide tanning

Which post disaster phase is generally characterized by optimism due to an infusion of resources?

Honeymoon phase

Select the three components, in correct order of administration, utilized in the treatment for cyanide exposure.

Amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, sodium thiosulfate

Which of the following statements does NOT describe spores produced by Bacillus anthracis, causative agent of anthrax?

Sensitive to UV light.

One of the contributing factors to stress reactions is the physical factor. Which of the following is associated with this factor?

preexisting medical conditions

________ damage brings death very quickly so that the consequences of exposure to other systems do not have time to express themselves.

Neurovascular

When conducting a medical assessment, what status is checked first?

Respiratory Status

A group of victims has been admitted to your triage unit. All victims have recently been in an area where canisters exploded spraying them with an amber colored liquid that smells like flowers and burns intensely. You suspect Lewisite.
Which of the following is not a consideration during treatment of the victims?

Unroofing of blisters.

Disaster victims presenting for medical care should be assessed for common short-term stress reactions which fall into what categories EXCEPT?

Intellectual

All of the following are procedures for activating the Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties

What treatment should be given to a patient exposed to T-2 mycotoxins via ingestion?

Therapy for poison ingestion including the administration of super-activated charcoal.

Which of the following bacterial diseases is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic plague

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate

Experts anticipate that a ________ incident is the least likely to occur but would have a great impact upon the environment and people.

Nuclear

What is the most available explosive agent?

Nitroglycerin

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities to:

Increase the speed, effectiveness, and efficiency of incident management.

A patient presents to the hospital. He has been feeling ill since his return from safari in Africa a few days ago. He exhibits symptoms of fever, mild hypotension, flushing, conjunctival injection, and now a bad rash has appeared that is bleeding in spots. What type of viral infection do you suspect?

Viral Hemorrhagic Fever

__________ occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Secondary Contamination

What type of care is a stress management component that fosters a mourning process and helps treat psychological stress reactions?

Pastoral care

One of the five intervention principles in the management of the stress response is promoting the sense of safety. How can this be accomplished?

Leadership provide an accurate, organized voice to help circumvent threat

Used in life-threatening situations, the goal is to remove contaminant as quickly as possible.

Immediate decontamination

What type of biological toxin is predominantly derived from the bean of the castor plant?

Ricin

What form of ionizing radiation can penetrate deeply into body tissue?

Photon

What is the comprehensive preparedness required to manage the casualties resulting from the host of possible hazards?

All-hazard preparedness

A metallic taste in the mouth, epigastric distress, and possible nausea and vomiting are ingestion symptoms for which chemical agent?

Cyanide

The primary toxicity of pulmonary agents is to the ________ and follows __________ of smoke, particles, vapors, or gases.

airways, inhalation

Penetrating trauma caused by shrapnel is usually attributed to which of the following?

Secondary blast effect

Which nerve agent is the most persistent, is very oily, and will stay active in an area for several days?

What blood test is available that will give an accurate estimate of radiation dose?

Lymphocytes count

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal

Which of the following is considered a pulmonary (choking) agent?

Chlorine

For which virus is the mosquito not known as a possible vector?

Smallpox

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level provides the greatest level of protection?

What directive establishes policies to strengthen the preparedness of the US to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attack, major disasters and other emergencies by requiring a national domestic all-hazards preparedness goal?

Presidential Policy Directive-8

Decontamination will be conducted in the __________ hazard zone.

Warm

What types of CBRNE agents are man-made and act rapidly, burn and blister skin, mucous membranes, airways and gastrointestinal systems?

Vesicants

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is generally divided into two categories. They are:

Respiratory Protection & Chemical Protective Garments

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately.

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant

Over 20 people who worked together developed cough, excess fluid in their lungs, and difficulty breathing. Chest x-rays show bilateral infiltrates with bronchial aspirates rich in protein. Several died. What was the likely agent?

Ricin

Which of the following cell types are most sensitive to radiation damage?

Cells that are actively dividing

A patient was admitted to the hospital suffering from the following symptoms for the past week: fever, chills and weakness, very swollen tender lymph nodes of bubo, and skin ulcerations. He states the ulcerations are exactly where very small insects bit him. Which type of plague is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Bubonic

A patient presents to the emergency room all exhibiting the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, problems with eye movement, dry mouth, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, no gag reflex, and extreme weakness. Patient is alert and oriented during the exam. What toxin do you suspect and how do you treat it?

Botulinum toxin, supportive care and antitoxin.

The amount of radiation that an individual absorbs depends on ____?

All of the Above

Time exposed to a radioactive source
Distance a person is from a radioactive source
Type and amount of shielding between a person and a radioactive source

What command system is a widely used and accepted tool for command, control and coordination of a response to a disaster?

Incident Command System

Definitive diagnosis of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever rests on _______________.

Specific virologic diagnosis

What is the role of the liaison officer within the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS)?

Function as the incident contact person for representatives from other agencies

What is the purpose of a secondary device?

Injure or kill first responders

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity

Which of the following decontamination method is NOT recommended for removing vesicants from
casualties?

Wash patient with their clothing still on.

Type of decontamination that is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination equal to natural background or to the lowest level possible.

Thorough

Which of the following is NOT relevant to a laboratory diagnosis of smallpox (variola)?

A positive Tzank smear

Which of the bacterial diseases produces a non-specific illness that may produce a prolonged disability but is rarely fatal?

Q Fever

What phase is characterized by improvement of symptoms but becomes shorter with increasing doses.

Latent

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair.

Victims caught in a fire have inhaled toxic smoke from furnishings and plastics that have released cyanide in the burning process. What precaution/side effects should you be aware of when administering cyanide antidotes?

Sodium nitrite can increase methemoglobin levels, which will decrease blood oxygenation

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________________.
the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people.

How does cyanide cause cell death in the body?

Interferes with anaerobic metabolism of the cell

All-hazards are often categorized as:

Man-made: technological

Radiation burns, which cause delayed, irreversible changes of the skin, can be caused by high doses of what form of ionizing radiation?

Beta

A bomb blast victim presents with nausea and abdominal pain. A Computed Tomography (CT) scan shows no hemorrhage. What treatment should be recommended?

Admit patient for observation for 12 to 24 hours in case a hematoma develops.

You are certain that your patient, who is now convulsing from nerve agent exposure, has already received three MARK 1/ATNAA kits and their diazepam. What else should be done?

All of the Above

Vesicant (blister) agents include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Sarin (GB)

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil authorities?

Phase III - Operate

What form of ionizing radiation is the least penetrating?

Alpha

The Disaster Mental Health Response Team can be called upon to assist victims and disaster responders. Which of the following is NOT a service that they may provide:

Provide professional psychological treatment

The majority of the injuries to gas-containing organs is usually attributed to which of the following?

Primary blast effect

What type of explosive is widely used by the military, and is one of the least sensitive explosives.

TNT

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities to:

increase the speed, effectiveness, and efficiency of incident management.

What bacterial infection requires confirmation through serological testing since it is difficult to culture the organism (causative agent)?

Q Fever

Which of the following statements does NOT describe Brucellosis?

The brucellae are highly infectious via the aerosol route and brucellosis is associated with a high mortality rate.

An explosion victim was admitted to your facility approximately 4 hours ago with chest pain, normal oxygenation and radial pulse. His condition continues to worsen with symptoms that include labored, rapid breathing, low blood pressure, and semi-consciousness. What emergency treatment would be appropriate?

Intubate and provide assisted ventilation with PEEP

Treatment of patients suffering from pulmonary agent exposure should focus on?

Recognizing which compartment(s) are damaged and minimizing that damage.

What technique may be used to test for T-2 Mycotoxins in environmental and clinical samples?
Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry

MOPP Level __ has flexibility built into the system to allow relief during hot weather.
IV

Which of these are fast-acting compounds that attack oxygen-dependent tissues known to be
particularly sensitive to these compounds?

Cyanide Compounds

A patient is suffering from painful, highly corrosive bums similar to acid, and wheals have
begun to appear on the skin. Which vesicant (blister agent) is suspected?

Phosgene oxime

This form of detection provides warning in sufficient time to implement protective and/or
treatment measures before exposure to agent.

Detection to protect or treat

Which of the following bacterial agents is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic plague

Disaster victims presenting for medical care should be assessed for common short-term
stress reactions which fall into all categories EXCEPT?

Intellectual

One of the five intervention principles in the management of the stress response is promoting
the sense of safety. How can this be accomplished?

Leadership provides an accurate, organized voice to help circumvent the threat

___ may be thought of as a form of identification.

Detection to protect or treat

What color triage tag would be used for a patient that requires immediate treatment?

Red

What type of CBRNE agent acts by inhibiting a crucial enzyme called acetylcholinesterase
(AChE)?

Nerve

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less
than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant

When washing with water, what procedures should be used when decontaminating a patient
that has been exposed to a CBRNE agent?

Use high-flow, low-pressure water for 2-3 min. Gently scrub with soap and water using a
soft b1istle brush.

Which post disaster phase is generally characterized by optimism due to an infusion of
resources?

Honeymoon phase

A male, non-smoking chemical worker is accidentally exposed to phosgene. The chest
radiograph taken 2 hours post-exposure is normal. Should you discharge him?

No, because pulmonary edema normally takes longer to develop, he should be closely
watched

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities
when the actions:

Are legal

Following a nuclear detonation, some of the casualties with survivable inju1ies are possibly
contaminated with radiological material. Which of the below courses of action is most
appropriate for the situation?

Treat all life-threatening injuries first

In a stress management briefing, a clinician attendee says this is the first disaster to which
she has been called. She states her biggest frustration is that no one has really defined her role.
What category of stressor is this responder experiencing?

Occupational factors

When should the self-protection measures of time, distance, and shielding be implemented?

Immediately upon arrival at the incident scene

How is the victim of a vesicant agent presenting with pulmonary distress more than 4 hours
after exposure classified?

Immediate

The Disaster Mental Health Response Team can be called upon to assist victims and
disaster responders. ·which of the following is NOT a service that they may provide:

Provide professional psychological treatment

Which nerve agent is the most persistent, is very oily, and will stay active in an area for
several days?

A patient who works at an insecticide manufacturing plant is admitted to the emergency
room. He states he was splashed with a large quantity of liquid and is now exhibiting symptoms
of vomiting, diarrhea, difficulty breathing, body twitching and is generally very weak. What is
the preferred treatment to block the effects of accessive ACh?

Administer additional 2-PAM

Which of the following is NOT critical in the treatment of a nerve agent casualty?

Administering pyridostigmine bromide (PB)

What directive establishes a single comprehensive national incident management system
that allows all levels of government to work efficiently and effectively together?

Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and
psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity

What level of civilian chemical equipment would healthcare providers don when providing
initial medical treatment after an incident but not involved with decontamination?
Level C

What is the value of ve1ification or confirmation of biological agents?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source
laboratories

The maj01ity of injuries to gas-containing organs are usually attributed to which of the
following?

Primary blast effect

For which vims is the mosquito not known as a possible vector?

Smallpox

An explosion victim was admitted to your facility approximately 4 hours ago with chest
pain, nonnal oxygenation and radial pulse. His condition continues to worsen with symptoms
that include labored, rapid breathing, low blood pressure, and semi-consciousness. What
emergency treatment would be appropriate?

Intubate and sedate

Which of the following decontamination method is NOT recommended for removing
vesicants from casualties?

Wash patient with their clothing still on

Radiodermatitis, which causes delayed, in-eversible changes of the skin, can be caused by
high doses of what form of ionizing radiation?

Beta

A patient presents to the hospital. He has been feeling ill since his return from safari in
Africa a few days ago. He exhibits symptoms of fever, mild hypotension, flushing, conjunctival
injection, and now a bad rash has appeared that is bleeding in spots. What type of viral infection do you suspect?

Viral Hemorrhagic Fever

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________
most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people
What type of decontamination neutralizes the contaminant?

Chemical decontamination

Processed foods and temperature-abused foods are most commonly associated with
____ poisoning.

Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (SEB)

A metallic taste in the mouth, epigastric distress, and possible nausea and vomiting are
ingestion symptoms for which chemical agent?

Cyanide

What is the correct order for the phases of Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)?

Prodromal, latent, and manifest

What type of ionizing radiation is the least penetrating?

Alpha

Which of the following CBRNE Consequence Task Pillars coordinates activities that
include exercise; warning and reporting; and command and control.

Coordinate operations

START stands for ____ ?

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

What type of explosive is widely used by the military, and is one of the least sensitive
explosives.

C-4

The following equipment is used for collection and/or detection of biological agents,
EXCEPT:

Surface Acoustic Wave (SAW) detectors

Definitive diagnosis of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever rests on -------

Specific virologic diagnosis

Pulmonary (choking) agents primarily enter the victim by what means?

Inhalation

__________ occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a
contaminated person or object.

Secondary contamination

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus
following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

Victims caught in a fire have inhaled toxic smoke from furnishings and plastics that have
released cyanide in the burning process. What precaution/side effects should you be aware of
when administering cyanide antidotes?

Sodium nitrite can increase methemoglobin levels, which will decrease blood oxygenation

What types of objects might a terrorist use to disguise a secondary explosive device?

All of the above

Knapsack, backpack, or parcel
Trash can or dumpster
Automobile or truck

Attendants at the hockey game are complaining of a strange smell and headaches. Some
have begun to vomit. Only those in the arena seem to be affected. Which CBRNE agent would
most likely produce this outcome?

Chemical

An avid outdoorsman who was hunting rabbits about a week ago presents with the
following symptoms: fever, headache, sore throat, diarrhea, conjunctivitis, and inflammation of
lymph nodes. What is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Tularemia

What bacterial infection requires confirmation through serological testing, because it is
difficult to culture the organism (causative agent)?

Q Fever

Your patient is recovering from injuries sustained in a terrorist incident and is exhibiting
stress symptoms. Which of the following is a common behavior reaction associated with severe
short-term stress reactions?

Substance abuse

Burned skin, shrapnel wounds, blunt trauma injuries, and ruptured organs may be
symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Explosives

Who is responsible for directing the command and control of all operations.

Incident Commander

What CBRNE agent inhibits the enzyme AChE allowing Ach to accumulate affecting the
way cells transmit signals to the body?

Nerve agents

Your unit has responded within minutes to a suspected CBRNE incident. Select the
important steps that you should take.

Practice protective measures of time, distance, and shielding

A patient was admitted to the hospital suffering from the following symptoms for the past
week: fever, chills and weakness, very swollen tender lymph nodes of bubo, and skin
ulcerations. He states the ulcerations are exactly where very small insects bit him. Which type
of plague is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Bubonic

The decontamination site should NOT be located:

Near waterways and drainage systems

What command system is a widely used and accepted tool for command, control, and
coordination of a response to a disaster?

Incident Command System

Advantages of adopting a comprehensive all-hazards approach includes the following
EXCPECT:

Attent10n is directed towards a single hazard

Which of the following is NOT a physical requirement of those expected to wear PPE?

Ability to handle emergency condition;

Which of the following cell types are least sensitive to ionizing radiation damage?

Cells that divide slowly (correct)

A group of people is presenting with a delayed onset of blisters and a dry productive cough that later turns productive. What is the likely culprit?

Mustard

__________ occurs when people come in direct contact with a harmful agent at or near an incident.

Contamination

Patient presents with 5-day-old blisters/rash mostly on the arm, face, and hands. No scabs are present. Patient reports fever started several days before blisters appeared. Based on the information would you suspect chickenpox or smallpox?

Smallpox, because the rash is centrifugal on the patient

How do nerve agents produce effects in the body?

They inhibit the enzyme Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) allowing Acetylcholine (ACh) to accumulate

A nerve gas attack has occurred in one of the city's underground subway stations. This is the second attack this month. After arriving on the scene, a veteran responder, considered a "tough guy" by his team, freezes up and is unable to continue. After talking to him, you determine he responded to the previous attack. What personal situation stressor is this veteran exhibiting?

Prior disaster experience

A patient is exhibiting the following symptoms: fever, cough, dyspnea, prominent gastrointestinal symptoms, and absence of buboes. Which form of plague is responsible?

Pneumonic

Which of the following bacterial diseases typically produce ulcers on the skin?

Tularemia

Patients with concurrent surgical injuries and radiation exposure should either be operated on expeditiously or _____________________________.

delayed until past the time of bone marrow suppression and delayed wound healing

How is the victim of vesicant (blister agent) exposure with skin burn over less than 5 percent of Body Surface Area (BSA) and minor eye irritation classified?

Minimal

A patient was admitted to the hospital suffering from the following symptoms for the last 5 days: fever, malaise, fatigue, and nonproductive cough. Chest x-rays reveal a widened mediastinum and the patient's white blood cell count is elevated. Which type of anthrax is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Inhalational

Which of the following is NOT a challenge in gaining access and acceptance?

similar cultural values

Smallpox can spread from one person to another by the following routes:

All of the Above

Which phase of CBRN response focuses on the prioritization of forces to deploy for mission task?

Phase II – Response

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to EPRC Clinical Course 8hr

During which post disaster phase do survivors realize that they will need to solve their problems of rebuilding their homes, businesses, and lives and have gradually assumed the responsibility to do so?

Reconstruction/Recovery Phase

Cyanide is historically found in the following EXCEPT:

Teflon

You approach the scene of a terrorist incident that occurred 2 minutes prior in an enclosed room. It is reported that the smell of bitter almonds is in the air. The door is open; many victims are lying on the floor. What do you do first?

Don your mask before going into the room (correct)

One of the contributing factors to stress reactions is the physical factor. Which of the following is associated with this factor?
dehydration
worries about others (correct) <----
sleep loss
preexisting medical conditions (This is the current answer on site)

What directive establishes a single comprehensive national incident management system that allows all levels of government to work efficiently and effectively together?
Homeland Security Presidential Directive-21
Homeland Security Presidential Directive-6
Presidential Policy Directive-8 (This is current answer on site)
Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5 (correct) <----

EPRC 1

What is the comprehensive preparedness required to manage the casualties resulting from the host of possible hazards?

all hazard response

Which of the following cell types are most sensitive to radiation damage?

Cells that are actively dividing

The amount of radiation that an individual absorbs depends on ____?

All of the Above

A nerve gas attack has occurred in one of the city's underground subway stations. This is the second attack this month. After arriving on the scent, a veteran responder, considered a "tough guy" by his team, freezes up and is unable to continue. After talking to him, you determine he responded to the previous attack. What personal situation stressor is this veteran exhibiting?

Prior disaster experience

Which of the following is a way to organize chemical agents that manifest most of their symptoms within seconds or minutes?

Fast effect

Reconstruction/Recovery Phase

Ricin

What type of explosive is widely used by the military, and is one of the least sensitive explosives.

TNT

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately.

A patient presents to the hospital. He exhibits symptoms of high fever, mild hypotension, flushing, conjunctiva injection, and now a bad rash has appeared that is bleeding in spots. He has been feeling ill since his return from safari in Africa a few days ago. What type of viral infection do you suspect?

Smallpox

How is the victim of vesicant (blister agent) exposure with skin burn over less than 5 percent of Body Surface Area (BSA) and minor eye irritation classified?

Minimal

What type of biological toxin is predominantly derived from the bean of the castor plant?

Ricin

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

What device detects and discriminates between nerve and mustard vapors and can be used to sort contaminated and clean personnel during decontamination?

Improved Chemical Agent Monitor (ICAM)

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal

Decontamination will be conducted in the __________ hazard control zone.

Warm

Which of the following bacterial disease is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic Plague

Which of the following is NOT a challenge in gaining access and acceptance?

similar cultural values

A group of people are presenting with a delayed onset of blisters and a dry productive cough that later turns productive. What is the likely culprit?

Mustard

Which of the following compounds can be administered to reduce the absorption of radiation that targets the thyroid?

Potassium Iodide

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are

the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people.

Your patient is recovering from injuries sustained in a terrorist incident and is exhibiting stress symptoms. Which of the following is a common behavior reaction associated with severe short-term stress reactions?

Substance abuse

Advantages of adopting a comprehensive all-hazards approach include the following EXCEPT:

Attention is directed towards a single hazard

What type of care is a stress management component that fosters a mourning process and helps treat psychological stress reactions?

Pastoral care

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant

What is the role of the liaison officer within the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS)?

Function as the incident contact person for representatives from other agencies

What is the value of verification or confirmation of biological agents?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source laboratories

Which of the following is NOT a physical requirement of those expected to wear PPE?

Ability to handle emergency conditions

Which of the following is NOT a physical requirement of those expected to wear PPE?

Ability to handle emergency conditions

What directive establishes a single comprehensive national incident management system that allows all levels of government to work efficiently and effectively together?

Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5

Your unit has responded within minutes to a suspected CBRNE incident. Select the important steps that you should take

Practice protective measures of time, distance, and shielding

occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Secondary Contamination

What agent blocks enzymes resulting in a cholinergic crisis?

???????

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair.

Which of the following agents is considered to be a slow effect agent?

Chlorine

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate

Smallpox can spread from one person to another by the following routes:

All of the Above

The decontamination site should NOT be located

Near waterways and drainage systems

This form of detection provides warning in sufficient time to implement protective and/or treatment measures before exposure to agent.

Detection to warn

What form of ionizing radiation can penetrate deeply into body tissue?

Photon

The immediate concern of chlorine exposure is the effects on the ____?

Airway and lungs

All of the following are procedures for activating the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties

A patient presented with the following symptoms for the past week: fever, chills and weakness, very swollen tender lymph nodes of bubo, and skin ulcerations. He states the ulcerations are exactly where very small insects bit him. Which type of plague is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Bubonic

Penetrating trauma caused by shrapnel is usually attributed to which of the following?

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil authorities?

Secondary blast effect

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil authorities

Phase III - Operate

blocks aerobic metabolism by interfering with cell use of oxygen

Cyanide

Which of the following bacterial diseases produce ulcers on the skin?

Tularemia

When conducting a medical assessment, what status is checked first?

Respiratory Status

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level provides the greatest level of protection?

Type of decontamination that is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination equal to natural background or to the lowest level possible.

Thorough

EPRC 2

What is the comprehensive preparedness required to manage the casualties resulting from the host of possible hazards?

all hazard response

Which of the following cell types are most sensitive to radiation damage?

Cells that are actively dividing

The amount of radiation that an individual absorbs depends on ____?

All of the Above

Prior disaster experience

Which of the following is a way to organize chemical agents that manifest most of their symptoms within seconds or minutes?

Fast effect

Reconstruction/Recovery Phase

Ricin

What type of explosive is widely used by the military, and is one of the least sensitive explosives.

TNT

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately.

Smallpox

How is the victim of vesicant (blister agent) exposure with skin burn over less than 5 percent of Body Surface Area (BSA) and minor eye irritation classified?

Minimal

What type of biological toxin is predominantly derived from the bean of the castor plant?

Ricin

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

What device detects and discriminates between nerve and mustard vapors and can be used to sort contaminated and clean personnel during decontamination?

Improved Chemical Agent Monitor (ICAM)

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal

Decontamination will be conducted in the __________ hazard control zone.

Warm

Which of the following bacterial disease is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic Plague

Which of the following is NOT a challenge in gaining access and acceptance?

similar cultural values

A group of people are presenting with a delayed onset of blisters and a dry productive cough that later turns productive. What is the likely culprit?

Mustard

Which of the following compounds can be administered to reduce the absorption of radiation that targets the thyroid?

Potassium Iodide

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are

the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people.

Your patient is recovering from injuries sustained in a terrorist incident and is exhibiting stress symptoms. Which of the following is a common behavior reaction associated with severe short-term stress reactions?

Substance abuse

Advantages of adopting a comprehensive all-hazards approach include the following EXCEPT:

Attention is directed towards a single hazard

What type of care is a stress management component that fosters a mourning process and helps treat psychological stress reactions?

Pastoral care

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant

What is the role of the liaison officer within the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS)?

Function as the incident contact person for representatives from other agencies

What is the value of verification or confirmation of biological agents?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source laboratories

Which of the following is NOT a physical requirement of those expected to wear PPE?

Ability to handle emergency conditions

Which of the following is NOT a physical requirement of those expected to wear PPE?

Ability to handle emergency conditions

What directive establishes a single comprehensive national incident management system that allows all levels of government to work efficiently and effectively together?

Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5

Your unit has responded within minutes to a suspected CBRNE incident. Select the important steps that you should take

Practice protective measures of time, distance, and shielding

occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Secondary Contamination

What agent blocks enzymes resulting in a cholinergic crisis?

???????

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair.

Which of the following agents is considered to be a slow effect agent?

Chlorine

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate

Smallpox can spread from one person to another by the following routes:

All of the Above

The decontamination site should NOT be located

Near waterways and drainage systems

This form of detection provides warning in sufficient time to implement protective and/or treatment measures before exposure to agent.

Detection to warn

What form of ionizing radiation can penetrate deeply into body tissue?

Photon

The immediate concern of chlorine exposure is the effects on the ____?

Airway and lungs

All of the following are procedures for activating the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties

Bubonic

Secondary blast effect

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil authorities

Phase III - Operate

blocks aerobic metabolism by interfering with cell use of oxygen

Cyanide

Which of the following bacterial diseases produce ulcers on the skin?

Tularemia

When conducting a medical assessment, what status is checked first?

Respiratory Status

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level provides the greatest level of protection?

Type of decontamination that is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination equal to natural background or to the lowest level possible.

Thorough

EPRC 3

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

Following a nuclear detonation, some of the casualties with survivable injuries are possibly contaminated with
radiological material. Which of the below courses of action is most appropriate for the situation?

Treat all life-threatening injuries first.

An explosion casualty suffering from crush injuries of the lower extremities has been admitted to your hospital with severe hyperkalemia. What emergency treatment is NOT recommended?

Limit fluids.

A patient is suffering from painful, highly corrosive burns similar to acid, and wheals have begun to appear on the skin. Which vesicant (blister agent) is suspected?

Phosgene oxime

You are certain that your patient, who is now convulsing from nerve agent exposure, has already received three MARK 1/ATNAA kits and their diazepam. What else should be done?

All of the Above

Provide ventilator assistance, oxygen, and IV fluids
Administer more atropine to reduce secretions and relax the airway
Give more diazepam to prevent seizures

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity

What type of laboratory test(s) would NOT be conducted if you suspect a patient has contracted plague?

Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry

Which of these are fast-acting compounds that attack oxygen-dependent tissues known to be particularly sensitive tothese compounds?

Cyanide Compounds

In industry, cyanide compounds are widely used during:

All of the Above

Plastic production
Gold and silver extraction
Hide tanning

Which post disaster phase is generally characterized by optimism due to an infusion of resources?

Honeymoon phase

Select the three components, in correct order of administration, utilized in the treatment for cyanide exposure.

Amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, sodium thiosulfate

Which of the following statements does NOT describe spores produced by Bacillus anthracis, causative agent of
anthrax?

Sensitive to UV light.

One of the contributing factors to stress reactions is the physical factor. Which of the following is associated with this
factor?

preexisting medical conditions

________ damage brings death very quickly so that the consequences of exposure to other systems do not have time
to express themselves.

Neurovascular

When conducting a medical assessment, what status is checked first?

Respiratory Status

A group of victims has been admitted to your triage unit. All victims have recently been in an area where canisters
exploded spraying them with an amber colored liquid that smells like flowers and burns intensely. You suspect Lewisite.
Which of the following is not a consideration during treatment of the victims?

Unroofing of blisters.

Disaster victims presenting for medical care should be assessed for common short-term stress reactions which fall into
what categories EXCEPT?

Intellectual

All of the following are procedures for activating the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties

What treatment should be given to a patient exposed to T-2 mycotoxins via ingestion?

Therapy for poison ingestion including the administration of super-activated charcoal.

Which of the following bacterial diseases is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic plague

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate

Experts anticipate that a ________ incident is the least likely to occur but would have a great impact upon the
environment and people.

Nuclear

What is the most available explosive agent?

Nitroglycerin

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities to:

Increase the speed, effectiveness, and efficiency of incident management.

A patient presents to the hospital. He has been feeling ill since his return from safari in Africa a few days ago. He
exhibits symptoms of fever, mild hypotension, flushing, conjunctival injection, and now a bad rash has appeared that is
bleeding in spots. What type of viral infection do you suspect?

Viral Hemorrhagic Fever

__________ occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Secondary Contamination

What type of care is a stress management component that fosters a mourning process and helps treat psychological
stress reactions?

Pastoral care

One of the five intervention principles in the management of the stress response is promoting the sense of safety. How
can this be accomplished?

Leadership provide an accurate, organized voice to help circumvent threat

Used in life-threatening situations, the goal is to remove contaminant as quickly as possible.

Immediate decontamination

What type of biological toxin is predominantly derived from the bean of the castor plant?

Ricin

What form of ionizing radiation can penetrate deeply into body tissue?

Photon

What is the comprehensive preparedness required to manage the casualties resulting from the host of possible
hazards?

All-hazard preparedness

A metallic taste in the mouth, epigastric distress, and possible nausea and vomiting are ingestion symptoms for which
chemical agent?

Cyanide

The primary toxicity of pulmonary agents is to the ________ and follows __________ of smoke, particles, vapors, or
gases.

airways, inhalation

Penetrating trauma caused by shrapnel is usually attributed to which of the following?

Secondary blast effect

Which nerve agent is the most persistent, is very oily, and will stay active in an area for several days?

What blood test is available that will give an accurate estimate of radiation dose?

Lymphocytes count

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal

Which of the following is considered a pulmonary (choking) agent?

Chlorine

For which virus is the mosquito not known as a possible vector?

Smallpox

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level provides the greatest level of protection?

What directive establishes policies to strengthen the preparedness of the US to prevent and respond to threatened or
actual domestic terrorist attack, major disasters and other emergencies by requiring a national domestic all-hazards
preparedness goal?

Presidential Policy Directive-8

Decontamination will be conducted in the __________ hazard zone.

Warm

What types of CBRNE agents are man-made and act rapidly, burn and blister skin, mucous membranes, airways and
gastrointestinal systems?

Vesicants

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is generally divided into two categories. They are:

Respiratory Protection & Chemical Protective Garments

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately.

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure
classified?

Expectant

Over 20 people who worked together developed cough, excess fluid in their lungs, and difficulty breathing. Chest x-rays
show bilateral infiltrates with bronchial aspirates rich in protein. Several died. What was the likely agent?

Ricin

Which of the following cell types are most sensitive to radiation damage?

Cells that are actively dividing

A patient was admitted to the hospital suffering from the following symptoms for the past week: fever, chills and
weakness, very swollen tender lymph nodes of bubo, and skin ulcerations. He states the ulcerations are exactly where very
small insects bit him. Which type of plague is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Bubonic

A patient presents to the emergency room all exhibiting the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, problems with eye
movement, dry mouth, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, no gag reflex, and extreme weakness. Patient is alert and oriented
during the exam. What toxin do you suspect and how do you treat it?

Botulinum toxin, supportive care and antitoxin.

The amount of radiation that an individual absorbs depends on ____?

All of the Above

Time exposed to a radioactive source
Distance a person is from a radioactive source
Type and amount of shielding between a person and a radioactive source

What command system is a widely used and accepted tool for command, control and coordination of a response to a
disaster?

Incident Command System

Definitive diagnosis of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever rests on _______________.

Specific virologic diagnosis

What is the role of the liaison officer within the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS)?

Function as the incident contact person for representatives from other agencies

What is the purpose of a secondary device?

Injure or kill first responders

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is
NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity

Which of the following decontamination method is NOT recommended for removing vesicants from
casualties?

Wash patient with their clothing still on.

Type of decontamination that is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination equal to natural background or to the
lowest level possible.

Thorough

Which of the following is NOT relevant to a laboratory diagnosis of smallpox (variola)?

A positive Tzank smear

Which of the bacterial diseases produces a non-specific illness that may produce a prolonged disability but is rarely
fatal?

Q Fever

What phase is characterized by improvement of symptoms but becomes shorter with increasing doses.

Latent

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair.

Victims caught in a fire have inhaled toxic smoke from furnishings and plastics that have released cyanide in the
burning process. What precaution/side effects should you be aware of when administering cyanide antidotes?

Sodium nitrite can increase methemoglobin levels, which will decrease blood oxygenation

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________________.

the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people.

How does cyanide cause cell death in the body?

Interferes with anaerobic metabolism of the cell

All-hazards are often categorized as:

Man-made: technological

Radiation burns, which cause delayed, irreversible changes of the skin, can be caused by high doses of what form of
ionizing radiation?

Beta

A bomb blast victim presents with nausea and abdominal pain. A Computed Tomography (CT) scan shows no
hemorrhage. What treatment should be recommended?

Admit patient for observation for 12 to 24 hours in case a hematoma develops.

You are certain that your patient, who is now convulsing from nerve agent exposure, has already received three MARK
1/ATNAA kits and their diazepam. What else should be done?

All of the Above

Vesicant (blister) agents include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Sarin (GB)

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil
authorities?

Phase III - Operate

What form of ionizing radiation is the least penetrating?

Alpha

The Disaster Mental Health Response Team can be called upon to assist victims and disaster responders. Which of the
following is NOT a service that they may provide:

Provide professional psychological treatment

The majority of the injuries to gas-containing organs is usually attributed to which of the following?

Primary blast effect

What type of explosive is widely used by the military, and is one of the least sensitive explosives.

TNT

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities to:What bacterial infection requires confirmation through serological testing since it is difficult to culture the organism
(causative agent)?

Q Fever

Which of the following statements does NOT describe Brucellosis?

The brucellae are highly infectious via the aerosol route and brucellosis is associated with a high mortality rate.

An explosion victim was admitted to your facility approximately 4 hours ago with chest pain, normal oxygenation and
radial pulse. His condition continues to worsen with symptoms that include labored, rapid breathing, low blood pressure,
and semi-consciousness. What emergency treatment would be appropriate?

Intubate and sedate.

Treatment of patients suffering from pulmonary agent exposure should focus on?

Recognizing which compartment(s) are damaged and minimizing that damage.

What technique may be used to test for T-2 Mycotoxins in environmental and clinical samples?

Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry

MOPP Level __ has flexibility built into the system to allow relief during hot weather.

Which of these are fast-acting compounds that attack oxygen-dependent tissues known to be
particularly sensitive to these compounds?

Cyanide Compounds

A patient is suffering from painful, highly corrosive bums similar to acid, and wheals have
begun to appear on the skin. Which vesicant (blister agent) is suspected?

Phosgene oxime

This form of detection provides warning in sufficient time to implement protective and/or
treatment measures before exposure to agent.

Detection to protect or treat

Which of the following bacterial agents is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic plague

Disaster victims presenting for medical care should be assessed for common short-term
stress reactions which fall into all categories EXCEPT?

Intellectual

One of the five intervention principles in the management of the stress response is promoting
the sense of safety. How can this be accomplished?

Leadership provides an accurate, organized voice to help circumvent the threat

___ may be thought of as a form of identification.

Detection to protect or treat

What color triage tag would be used for a patient that requires immediate treatment?

Red

What type of CBRNE agent acts by inhibiting a crucial enzyme called acetylcholinesterase
(AChE)?

Nerve

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less
than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant

When washing with water, what procedures should be used when decontaminating a patient
that has been exposed to a CBRNE agent?

Use high-flow, low-pressure water for 2-3 min. Gently scrub with soap and water using a
soft b1istle brush.

Which post disaster phase is generally characterized by optimism due to an infusion of
resources?

Honeymoon phase

A male, non-smoking chemical worker is accidentally exposed to phosgene. The chest
radiograph taken 2 hours post-exposure is normal. Should you discharge him?

No, because pulmonary edema normally takes longer to develop, he should be closely
watched

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities
when the actions:

Are legal

Treat all life-threatening injuries first

Occupational factors

When should the self-protection measures of time, distance, and shielding be implemented?

Immediately upon arrival at the incident scene

How is the victim of a vesicant agent presenting with pulmonary distress more than 4 hours
after exposure classified?

Immediate

The Disaster Mental Health Response Team can be called upon to assist victims and
disaster responders. ·which of the following is NOT a service that they may provide:

Provide professional psychological treatment

Which nerve agent is the most persistent, is very oily, and will stay active in an area for
several days?

2 mg atropine IV

Which of the following is NOT critical in the treatment of a nerve agent casualty?

Administering pyridostigmine bromide (PB)

What directive establishes a single comprehensive national incident management system
that allows all levels of government to work efficiently and effectively together?

Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and
psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity

What level of civilian chemical equipment would healthcare providers don when providing
initial medical treatment after an incident but not involved with decontamination?

Level C

What is the value of ve1ification or confirmation of biological agents?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source
laboratories

The maj01ity of injuries to gas-containing organs are usually attributed to which of the
following?

Primary blast effect

For which vims is the mosquito not known as a possible vector?

Smallpox

Intubate and sedate

Which of the following decontamination method is NOT recommended for removing
vesicants from casualties?

Wash patient with their clothing still on

Radiodermatitis, which causes delayed, in-eversible changes of the skin, can be caused by
high doses of what form of ionizing radiation?

Beta

A patient presents to the hospital. He has been feeling ill since his return from safari in
Africa a few days ago. He exhibits symptoms of fever, mild hypotension, flushing, conjunctival
injection, and now a bad rash has appeared that is bleeding in spots. What type of viral infection
do you suspect?

Viral Hemorrhagic Fever

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________

most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people

What type of decontamination neutralizes the contaminant?

Chemical decontamination

Processed foods and temperature-abused foods are most commonly associated with
____ poisoning.

Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (SEB)

A metallic taste in the mouth, epigastric distress, and possible nausea and vomiting are
ingestion symptoms for which chemical agent?

Cyanide

What is the correct order for the phases of Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)?

Prodromal, latent, and manifest

what type of ionizing radiation is the least penetrating?

Alpha

Which of the following CBRNE Consequence Task Pillars coordinates activities that
include exercise; warning and reporting; and command and control.

Coordinate operations

START stands for ____ ?

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

What type of explosive is widely used by the military, and is one of the least sensitive
explosives.

C-4

The following equipment is used for collection and/or detection of biological agents,
EXCEPT:

Surface Acoustic Wave (SAW) detectors

Definitive diagnosis of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever rests on -------

Specific virologic diagnosis

Pulmonary (choking) agents primarily enter the victim by what means?

Inhalation

__________ occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a
contaminated person or object.

Secondary contamination

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus
following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

Victims caught in a fire have inhaled toxic smoke from furnishings and plastics that have
released cyanide in the burning process. What precaution/side effects should you be aware of
when administering cyanide antidotes?

Sodium nitrite can increase methemoglobin levels, which will decrease blood oxygenation

What types of objects might a terrorist use to disguise a secondary explosive device?

All of the above

Knapsack, backpack, or parcel
Trash can or dumpster
Automobile or truck

Chemical

Tularemia

What bacterial infection requires confirmation through serological testing, because it is
difficult to culture the organism (causative agent)?

Q Fever

Substance abuse

Burned skin, shrapnel wounds, blunt trauma injuries, and ruptured organs may be
symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Explosives

Who is responsible for directing the command and control of all operations.

Incident Commander

What CBRNE agent inhibits the enzyme AChE allowing Ach to accumulate affecting the
way cells transmit signals to the body?

Nerve agents

Your unit has responded within minutes to a suspected CBRNE incident. Select the
important steps that you should take.

Practice protective measures of time, distance, and shielding

A patient was admitted to the hospital suffering from the following symptoms for the past
week: fever, chills and weakness, very swollen tender lymph nodes of bubo, and skin
ulcerations. He states the ulcerations are exactly where very small insects bit him. Which type
of plague is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Bubonic

The decontamination site should NOT be located:

Near waterways and drainage systems

What command system is a widely used and accepted tool for command, control, and
coordination of a response to a disaster?

Incident Command System

Advantages of adopting a comprehensive all-hazards approach includes the following
EXCPECT:

Attent10n is directed towards a single hazard

Which of the following is NOT a physical requirement of those expected to wear PPE?

Ability to handle emergency condition;

Which of the following cell types are least sensitive to ionizing radiation damage?

Cells that divide slowly (correct)

A group of people is presenting with a delayed onset of blisters and a dry productive cough that later turns productive. What is the likely culprit?

Mustard

__________ occurs when people come in direct contact with a harmful agent at or near an incident.

Contamination

Smallpox, because the rash is centrifugal on the patient

How do nerve agents produce effects in the body?

They inhibit the enzyme Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) allowing Acetylcholine (ACh) to accumulate

Prior disaster experience

A patient is exhibiting the following symptoms: fever, cough, dyspnea, prominent gastrointestinal symptoms, and absence of buboes. Which form of plague is responsible?

Pneumonic

Which of the following bacterial diseases typically produce ulcers on the skin?

Tularemia

Patients with concurrent surgical injuries and radiation exposure should either be operated on expeditiously or _____________________________.

delayed until past the time of bone marrow suppression and delayed wound healing

How is the victim of vesicant (blister agent) exposure with skin burn over less than 5 percent of Body Surface Area (BSA) and minor eye irritation classified?

Minimal

Inhalational

Which of the following is NOT a challenge in gaining access and acceptance?

similar cultural values

Smallpox can spread from one person to another by the following routes:

All of the Above

Which phase of CBRN response focuses on the prioritization of forces to deploy for mission task?

Phase II - Response

EPRC Basic Awareness

These chemical agents produce temporary disabling conditions that can be physical or mental and persist for hours or days after exposure to the agent has ceased.

Incapacitating agents

Tornados, earthquakes, hurricanes, wildfires, tsunamis are examples of?

Natural Hazards

a standard, on-scene, "all-hazards" incident management concept that allows its users to adopt an integrated organizational structure describes which of the following?

Incident Command System

Burned or reddened skin, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, and convulsions may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Radiological/Nuclear

Which of the following lifesaving assessment procedures involves making note of the rate of change in a victim's skin color and temperature?

Circulation

What CBRNE agent are microorganisms and/or biologically derived compounds or molecules that cause disease in personnel, plants, or animals?

Biological

The greater your distance from the source of harm, the less your ______.

Exposure

Which of the following is the LEAST likely terrorist target? 1)Large public gatherings. 2) Local public libraries. 3) Memorials and Landmarks. 4) Financial Institutes.

Local public libraries

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities:

To increase the speed, effectiveness, and efficiency of incident management.

An incident at the nuclear power plant involving the unintentional release of radiological material has occurred. In what hazard category would this incident be categorized?

Human-caused: Technological

What command system is a widely used and accepted tool for command, control, and coordination of a response to a disaster?

Incident Command System

The immediate concern of chlorine exposure is the effects on the ____?

Airways and lungs

__________ triggers a powerful inflammatory response.

Sulfur Mustard

Which of the following is NOT a type of biological agent.

blood

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Civilian Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

OSHA categorizes equipment ensembles into six levels, levels A (highest form of protection) through F (lowest form of protection)

___________ is (are) a collection of various intentional threats and unintentional contamination hazards.

All-Hazards

What CBRNE agent typically intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate mainly through their physiological effects?

Chemical

Red or irritated eyes and skin, choking, vomiting, convulsions or seizures, pinpoint pupils may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Chemical

What is the first step in self decontamination?

Removing all outer clothing

What common characteristic is NOT associated with terrorist activities known around the world?

Terrorist organizations are always associated with gangs

A truck explodes downtown during rush hour near a government building. There are more than 100 casualties. Many more victims are injured by the blast. In what hazard category would this incident be categorized?

Threat or Human caused

What measure should you NOT take to protect yourself during a CBRNE incident?

Get downhill and downwind of the source of contamination

Level ___ is used when nuisance contamination is present only requiring the lowest form of chemical and/or respiratory protection.

Incident Command System helps to ensure all of the following EXCEPT:

The ability to handle only one small incident at a time

__________ eliminates critical seams and ties together a complete spectrum of incident management activities.

All-hazards Approach

Coughing/flu-like symptoms, fever, weakness or fatigue, vomiting and diarrhea may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Biological

One of the basic self-decontamination rules includes flushing body and clothing with large quantities of water.

False

Burned skin, shrapnel wounds, blunt trauma injuries, and ruptured hollow organs may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

High-yield explosives

These chemical agents are classified as non-lethal and normally only irritate the skin, eyes, and inside of the mouth.

Riot control agent

After September 11, 2001, the _____________ was established to provide a framework that provides a comprehensive national approach, applicable at all jurisdictional levels and across functional disciplines.

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

What CBRNE agent is accompanied with a highly destructive explosion that instantly devastates people and buildings because of extreme heat and impact of the blast?

Nuclear

__________ are poisonous substances of natural origin produced by an animal, plant, or microbe.

Toxins

Managers' Internal Control Program Training (Sailor Scenario Option)

January 9, 2018 Guest User

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to CBT Managers' Internal Control Program Training (Sailor Scenario Option)

Many hazardous materials are assigned an “in-use” quantity, which represents a reasonable amount required to have on hand for normal operations. Dispensing hazardous materials to the shops in accordance with these limits would be considered what type of control?

C. Preventative

Case Question 2
Storage of hazardous materials aboard ships is governed by OPNAV Instruction 5100.19E, Naval Safety and Occupational Health Program for Forces Afloat. This represents which type of control?

D. Directive

Case Question 3
One objective of Shipboard Damage Control is “detection and localization” of damage.
During a risk assessment, it was noted that a major risk to this objective is missing or inoperative equipment used by damage control personnel.
An appropriate control to mitigate this specific risk would be:

B. Frequent inventories and operational checks of damage
control equipment

Case Question 4
The case study highlights many internal controls, to include directives, shipboard inspections, inventory systems and hazardous materials procedures, among others.
Which of the following statements is true of the shipboard environment in which the fire occurred?

B. Internal controls existed but were not always effective in
their design and operation.

Case Question 5
When interviewed during the subsequent investigation, one crew member admitted that he and his shipmates sometimes stored refrigerant oil and other materials in work spaces in order to have them “on hand” because it was “hard to get things from HAZMAT.”
This view led to the accumulation of flammable substances in an unauthorized area. It also reflects which of the following limitations of internal controls?

D. Collusion (willful circumvention of controls)

Core Question 1
A contingency operation plan calls for an organization to periodically back up its information systems in the event of system outage and/or server errors. The backup files restore the system to its expected state.
This is an example of which type of control?

D. Corrective

Core Question 2
Which of the following controls would be the most useful in detecting an employee who is stealing cash?

B. The manager performs periodic surprise cash counts.

Core Question 3
A repair center’s objective is to maintain accurate inventory of government furnished equipment. One risk to this objective is failure to confirm shipments are received by contractors.
Which of the following is a detective control that would best mitigate this risk?

C. Establish an automated reporting system that generates
alerts for overdue confirmations

Core Question 4
When designing an effective internal control, which of the following should not be taken into account?

B. Owner of the process

Core Question 5
An employee uses his government purchase card to buy two laptops, keeping one for personal use and giving the other to his coworker. The coworker is responsible for approving all purchase card transactions for their organization.
By working together and circumventing controls, the employees demonstrated what kind of control limitation?

A. Collusion

Module 2
Case Question 1
Which of the following would be considered indicators of a good Control Environment? (Select all that apply).

A. The Captain and Executive Officer were held ultimately
responsible for the mishap, cited with failure to “supervise
and coordinate the work, exercises, training and education
of personnel in the command.”

B. The USS George Washington, like other ships, has a
Standard Operating and Regulations Manual (SORM) that
contains information pertaining to specific situations and
the method of handling them (hazard drills, FITREP
routing, etc), guidelines to be followed, and information
necessary to perform the duties properly.

C. Although he outranked the Engineering Officer on
Watch, the Reactor Officer did not get involved in the
damage control effort, since that was the purview of the
Damage Control Center, which he knew to be
adequately manned.

Case Question 2
Subsequent to this incident, the Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA) convened a separate investigation into the effect that deactivation and removal of the auxiliary boiler (SHIPALT CVN68-8053K) might have had on the fire.
Determining how the findings of this investigation might indicate hazards on other ships would be an example of:

B. Risk analysis

Case Question 3
The failure of the HAZMAT division to enter into HICS the Direct Turnover (DTO) of refrigerant compressor oil to work center EA-03 allowed the oil to remain unaccounted for. What feature of HICS would be considered a control activity that might have prevented the accumulation of oil, had it been entered into the system?

C. System-generated “delinquent turn-in” notice alerting
HAZMAT division to contact work center EA-03

Case Question 4
Which of the following would be considered examples of Information and Communication? (Select all that apply.)

B. The Hazardous Inventory Control System, a real-time
database of hazardous materials, to include quantities and
current locations

C. Ship’s “plates” or drawings that depict spaces and
structures within a ship

D. After finding refrigerant oil being stored improperly (prior
to the fire), the CHENG telling his department heads to
inspect their spaces for similar violations

F. Making the ship’s smoking policy is available on the ship’s
intranet

Case Question 5
The Naval Safety Center conducted a safety survey of the USS George Washington several months prior to the incident and found 171 total discrepancies, which they noted as average for a ship of this class.
Tracking the results of inspections over time and developing statistics with which to compare performance are examples of:

D. Monitoring

Core Question 1
An inspector reviews an organization and determines that the control environment is excellent. Which of the following statements would she have likely heard in her candid interviews with staff?

1. “Everyone in the office is quite clear as to their job responsibilities.”
2. “The procedure for handling classified documents is not really written down anywhere; we just all know what to do, more or less.”
3. “There are so many hoops to jump through to do anything, most of the time we do not bother, or we look for a way around it.”
4. “Whenever I make a transaction above a certain amount, the written procedure is to have my boss sign off on it.”
5. “Once per quarter, we have an independent auditor come in to do random checks of our transaction records.”
6. “We are required to lock up the office at the end of each day, but none of us are really sure what is at risk if we do not lock up. “

C. 1, 4, 5

Core Question 2
Which of the following statements related to risk assessment is false?

C. A single risk analysis methodology is used throughout
the federal government, in every agency.

Core Question 3
Which of the following would be considered control activities? (Select all that apply.)

A. Restricted access to medical records

B. Monthly review of purchase card transactions by
organization

C. Policies on approval of overtime and compensatory time

D. Review of contract documents to ensure compliance
with Federal Acquisition Regulations

Core Question 4
Effective information and communication practices should occur: (Select all that apply.)

B. With external groups that can affect the organization’s
mission and goals

C. Throughout the organization – flowing down, up, and
across all levels

Core Question 5
Which of the following items would not be an example of monitoring?

B. After implementing a new system with additional
controls, a headquarters organization maintains metrics
for improper payments made by its subordinate units.

Module 3
Case Question 1
While performing a risk assessment in the Damage Control section, the potential for defective or inoperative equipment was noted to be high. Increased frequency of inspections was implemented as a control to mitigate this risk. However, it was noted that there was still some potential for equipment to be unusable despite these inspections.

The risk that remains after this control is known as the:

B. Combined, or residual, risk

Case Question 2
This incident led the ship’s MIC Coordinator to reconsider whether the MIC Program was being properly deployed. She decided to begin by reviewing the list of assessable units to see if it was complete and accurate.
Which of the following should be taken into account when creating a list of assessable units? (Select all that apply.)

A. Taken together, assessable units must constitute the
entire organization.

C. Assessable units can be functional or organizational.

D. Assessable units should have clear limits or boundaries
to reinforce accountability for their processes.

Case Question 3
The ship’s MIC Coordinator asked the MIC Coordinator from the Auxiliary Division for assistance in updating the ship’s MIC Plan. The updated version should include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A. Description and documentation of monitoring efforts

B. Existing control deficiencies and their corrective actions

C. Internal controls testing being performed

E. Risk assessments and a description of how risk is
assessed

Case Question 4
As a way to test the effectiveness of operation of the Hazardous Waste Inventory System (HICS), a Chief is assigned to watch as a member of the HAZMAT division generates exception reports and prepares notifications to shops that have excessive quantities of HAZMAT outstanding.
This is an example of which type of internal control testing?

B. Observation

Case Question 5
One of the internal controls in the Damage Control process was noted to be periodic inspections of fire extinguishers throughout the ship. Test results indicated that inspections were being conducted frequently enough to mitigate the risk of failure. However, while interviewing some of the crew, investigators found that some crew members were not adequately trained to perform the inspections and were not checking critical items, which might have led to a false sense that extinguishers were in proper working order.
The test results show that this internal control:

A. Is designed effectively but not operating effectively

Core Question 1
Which of the following represent goals of the MIC program? (Select all that apply.)

B. To comply with the requirements of FMFIA and OMB
Circular A-123

D. To ensure that the Department of the Navy has a
sound internal controls program in place

Core Question 2
MIC Program implementation is the responsibility of a MIC Coordinator, although the fundamentals and importance of internal controls should be understood by:

D. All Department of the Navy employees

Core Question 3
Which of the following best represents the order of activities associated with the annual MIC process?

B. Process documentation, risk assessment,
controls identification, testing, and SOA reporting

Core Question 4
Certain operations are susceptible to certain hazards, such as fire or explosion. Even though controls are put in place to reduce the likelihood of occurrence, the original susceptibility to these hazards is always there.
This is called:

B. Inherent risk

Core Question 5
Which type of test would involve an individual sitting next to a worker to see firsthand the activities that make up a particular task?

A. Observation

Module 4
Case Question 1
In the final investigation, it was determined that the fire had not been serious enough to significantly impact operations aboard the ship. However, the Navy incurred significant cost in terms of injured personnel and repairs. Control deficiencies related to this incident would likely be considered material for which reason?

B. Threat to resources

Case Question 2
In the year that followed, the HAZMAT Division was able to report reasonable assurance that its controls were in place and working effectively.
Which of the following is the weakest support for this assurance?

C. No additional fires in the same area of the ship

Case Question 3
When initially asked for milestones for the “hazardous material storage and handling” material weakness, the shop’s MIC Coordinator wrote:
“Pass next Material and Maintenance Management (3M) Assessment scheduled in 18 months.”
What can be done to improve the milestones for this material weakness? (Select all that apply.)

B. Add quarterly milestones leading up to the goal of passing
the upcoming 3M Assessment.

C. Identify specific internal controls that can be improved
or added to correct the deficiency.

D. Ensure that milestones produce results that are
measurable so that progress can be reported.

Case Question 4
As part of the ship’s certification statement, the MIC coordinator made sure to include many accomplishments to show improvements in specific controls and the overall control environment. Which of the following would be considered a control-related accomplishment? (Select all that apply.)

A. Ship’s smoking policy is added to the ship’s indoctrination,
as well as being made available on the ship’s intranet.

B. Results from random inspections of damage control
equipment show sharp improvement over time.

C. System modification to the Hazardous Inventory Control
System allows greater visibility into the amounts, dates, and
shops to which HAZMAT has been issued.

D. Process improvements are made reduce the amount of time
between the completion of a ship alteration and the
corresponding updates to the ship’s drawings.

Case Question 5
The MIC Coordinator on the ship collected input on control deficiencies and accomplishments from various departments. Once the certification was complete and signed, to whom would she submit it?

D. The MIC Coordinator of the next higher level in the MIC
reporting chain.

Core Question 1
If a command believes that its internal controls provide reasonable assurance, but there are some material weaknesses identified, which type of opinion should the command use?

D. Qualified assurance

Core Question 2
One reason for including a discussion of an organization’s accomplishments in the annual certification statement is to:

A. Provide an update on the activities related to internal
controls improvement for the reporting organization

Core Question 3
During a control assessment, an organization identifies a control deficiency in one of its business processes. The organization manager decides the deficiency is not severe enough to report to the next higher level. The MIC Coordinator should identify the deficiency as a/an __________ on the certification statement.

A. Item to be revisited

Core Question 4
Which control deficiency classification pertains to an issue brought to management’s attention that requires additional analysis to determine whether it represents a control deficiency and is “material”?

A. Item to be revisited

Core Question 5
A MIC Coordinator is preparing the annual certification statement for his/her assessable unit. Who can certify the assessable unit’s statement of reasonable assurance via signature? (Select all that apply.)

A. Activity head

B. Principal Deputy

C. MIC Coordinator

D. MIC Alternate

Blended Retirement System

December 31, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers for CBT blended retirement system.

_____, is an incentive designed to encourage members to continue serving at critical points in their career and may be provided to you mid-career for your commitment to at least 3 additional years of service.

-Continuation Pay

The addition of interest added to the principal in a retirement account over time is called _____.

-compounding

The BRS calculator enables you to _____.

-estimate your potential retirement savings and income

The following individuals can make the final BRS opt-in decision for you:

-Only you can make this decision.

Under the BRS, the basic components of your retirement plan are: (Select all that apply):

-Up to an additional 4% Government-matching contributions to a TSP account based on Service member contribution rates

-Eligibility for a Lump Sum payment option

-Automatic 1% Government contribution to a Thrift Savings Plan account

-Monthly retired pay at 40% in return for at least 20 Years of Service

Money that is vested in a retirement account is _____.

-the employee's to keep along with all interest earned and employer-matching contributions

Service member decisions to opt into the Blended Retirement System (BRS) _____.

-cannot be reversed at any time once made (correct)

8) Before making a final decision on a Uniformed Services retirement plan, Service members need to consider _____.

-all of the above

9) The legacy "High-3" retirement system for the Uniformed Services requires Service members to serve _____ years of active duty, or qualifying Years of Service for the Reserve Component, in order to qualify to receive the defined-benefit retired pay.

-20

10) You have the opportunity to opt into the BRS because you are either an Active Component (AC) member who will have completed fewer than _____ or a Reserve Component (RC) member who will have fewer than _____ as of December 31, 2017.

-12 YOS, 4,320 retirement points

11) A pension is _____.
a retirement system in which an employee continues receiving regular income after he/she retires

12) Which of the following are advantages to Service members who participate in the Blended Retirement System with respect to the Thrift Savings Plan?

-Government-automatic [1%] contributions and Government-matching contributions up to an additional 4% of basic pay

13) Financial experts advise you will need approximately _____ of your pre-retirement income in order to maintain your standard of living after you retire.

-80%

14) The Blended Retirement System (BRS) and the legacy "High-3" retirement system both require _____ Years of Service (YOS) in order to qualify for monthly retired pay.

-20

Professional / Unprofessional Relationships

December 30, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers for CBT Professional / Unprofessional Relationships

The actions in response to unprofessional relationships should normally be the least severe necessary to terminate unprofessional aspects of relationship.

-TRUE

Unprofessional relationships result in or reasonably create an appearance of ___.

-all of the above

What item(s) would be considered unprofessional between officers and enlisted?

-all of the above

Commanders and supervisors should tailor the application and enforcement of the principles concerning unprofessional relationships in order to appropriately address unique situations that may arise from part-time service given by members of the Reserves and National Guard.

-TRUE

Personnel providing treatment, care and counseling will not accept sexual overtures from persons receiving their services.

-TRUE

Unprofessional relationships can exist between ___.

-All of the above

All personnel should be briefed on concepts of unprofessional relationships and fraternization at least semi-annually

-FALSE

Under normal circumstances, officers and enlisted can share living accommodations.

-FALSE

What term describes personal interaction that adds to morale, discipline and respect for authority?

-Professional relationship

Administrative actions for unprofessional relationships include, but are not limited to, counseling, reprimand or reassignment.

-TRUE

Professional relationships are those interpersonal relationships consistent with what Air Force core values?

-all of the above

What term is used to describe a personal relationship between an officer and an enlisted member that violates the customary bounds of acceptable behavior in the Air Force and prejudices good order and discipline, discredits the armed services, or operates to the personal disgrace or dishonor of the officer involved?

-Fraternization

What article in the Uniform Code of Military Justice covers fraternization?

-134

Air Force members must avoid relationships that negatively affect morale, discipline, respect for authority and unit cohesion.

-TRUE

A close personal relationship between members can become unprofessional if one member ___.

-becomes the rater of the other member

Which of the following is subject to action under the UCMJ for unprofessional relationships?

-Officer and enlisted personnel

Supervisors may frequently accept large loans from individuals they supervise.

-FALSE

The policy on professional relationships recognizes that there are times when safety or operating conditions will warrant exceptions to the general rules. The senior officer present in these circumstances should define the acceptable bounds and set standards to maintain morale, good order and discipline.

-TRUE

According to Air Force policy, officers will not engage in sexual relations with or date enlisted members.

-TRUE

What Air Force Instruction covers professional and unprofessional relationships?

-36-2909

Which ethical principle is closely associated with the maxim, primum non nocere - first do no harm?

Non-maleficence

What principle obliges us to equally distribute benefits, risks, costs, and resources?

Justice

What are the standards of conduct for professional societies usually called?

Codes of ethics

Restricting care or curtailing services to the community is an example of which category of healthcare ethics?

Organizational

Under what category of healthcare ethics would you expect to find a moral framework for decision making that would permit the refinement of principles, rules, and judgments?

Personal

True or False: Identifying cases unlike the one you are encountering and seeking out information on how these were resolved is a method to resolve a conflict between personal and professional ethics.

True

True or False: Critical Evaluation is one of the critical virtues in healthcare

False

Counter IED

December 30, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to CBT Counter IED

which of these is an example of a an electric circuit?

-Wires connected

which of these is preferred method of death and destruction by terrorists?

-IEDS

Which of these is an example of a time switch?

-Fuse lit with a match

What component of an IED is used to start a detonation?

-Initiator

Which of these is a typical design for IED detonation?

-Victim

Which of these is an example of an IED switch?

-Command

Which type of IED is used to deliver an explosive charge to a target with a large stand-off distance between the firing point and the target?

-Vehicle Borne

____ is explosive ordnance that has been fused and then dropped, projected, thrown or emplaced

-UXO

Which of these is a primary component of an IED?

-container

Which of these best defines an IED?

-A complete device that woulddetonate if not disarmed.

which of the following houses the principle components of an ied

-Container

which of these is a difference between efps and other ieds

-EFPs have a higher casualty rate than other IEDs.

which of these is a true statement about ied switches

-They may be crude or sophisicated

Which component of an IED creates an electrical charge?

-Power source

An explosive or non-explosive triggering device deliberately placed to cause casualties when an apparently harmless object is moved or a normally safe act is performed is called an?

-Victim operated

Which of these is an example of a victim operated switch?

-Pressure switch

which of these is a typical design for ied detonation

-Time delay

which of these is a primary component of an ied

-Initiator

which of these is an example of IED Switch?

-Electronic circuit

which of these is a difference between efps and other ieds

-EFP may be placed father away

which of these is the best practice to protect yourself in a convoy under combat conditions

-Stay observant

during which step of the 5 c's is the post blast investigation performed

-control

which of these is a difference between efps and other ieds

-EFP are capable of penetrating armor

during which step of the 5 c's should you fill out a 9 line eh spot report

-Confirm

which one of these actions is on an explosive hazard 9-line report

-Contact Method

which of these is a warning sign of a suicide bomber

-bulky vest

during which step of the 5 c's should you establish an entry control point

-Cordon

Which of these situations should you be particularly vigilant when looking for roadside bombs

-highway overpass

which of these areas would serve as the most effective roadside

-overpass

which of these factors is used to determine how a vehicle is chosen for use as a vbied

-The vehicle blends in

which of these is a warning sign of a vbied

-Visible UXO

which of these is not a primary version of a roadside ied attack

-multifaceted IED attack

which is part of the clear step when an ied is discovered

-cover whenever possible.

which of these is a warning sign of a vbied

-odd fumes from trunk

which of these factors is used to determine how a vehicle is chosen for use as a vbied

-the vehicle should be similar to other vehicles

which of these is a warning sign of a vbied

-abandoned

An ied in plain sight on the road may be a device as part of a hidden attack?

-ruse or hoax

What is the most prevalent IED threat facing the military today?

-roadside bomb

which of these areas would serve as the most effective roadside

-A high rise building

Q. Which type of IED is used to deliver an explosive charge to a target with a large stand-off distance between the firing point and the target?
A. *NOT* Vehicle Borne *NOT*
Q. Which of these is an example of an electric circuit?
A. Wires connected to a power source
Q. Which of these BEST defines an IED?
A. A complete device that would detonate if not disarmed.
Q. Which of these is a typical design for IED detonation?
A. Victim
Q. Which of these is a warning sign of a suicide bomber
A. bulky vest on a warm sunny day
Q. Which of these factors is used to determine how a vehicle is chosen for use as a VBIED?
A. The vehicle blends in with other vehicles in the target area.
Q. Which step of the 5 Cs should you follow the 5/25 rule?
A. Check
Q. Which of these is a difference between EFPs and other IEDs
A. EFP may be placed father away from a target than other IEDs
Q. Which is part of the clear step when an IED is discovered
A. *NOT* over whenever possible *NOT*
Q. Which of these factors is used to determine how a vehicle is chosen for use as a VBIED
A. The vehicle should be similar to other vehicles having routine access to the target area
Q. Which of these is a warning sign of a VBIED
A. Abandoned in a particular place
Q. Which of these areas would serve as the MOST effective roadside IED observation point?
A. An overpass
Q. Which of these is a warning sign of a VBIED
A. Visible UXO and wires

LOAC

December 30, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the questions and answers to CBT LOAC

If the enemy violates provisions of the law of armed conflict then us forces:

-US Forces will keep LOAC rules!

Extreme military necessity excuse acts that are normally considered war crimes under the law of war?

-FALSE

The red cross symbol be used to hide military activities?

-FALSE

A civilian factory where military aircraft parts are fabricated may be subject to attack?

-TRUE

Maps and military documents may be taken from prisoners of war?

-TRUE

A detainee may be killed if the detainee's presence is a threat to the unit's safety, security, or mission.

-FALSE

Which statement best describes employment of a legal weapon?

-Employing hollow-point bullets after receiving them for a specific mission.

Under the Geneva conventions, prisoners of war are only required to give a captor their:

-name, rank, date of birth, SSN

The red cross is an internationally reconginized symbol for protected medical and religious personnel.

-TRUE

Captured military medicial personnel are:

-Retained personnel

You can shoot descending enemy paratroopers:

-TRUE

Detainees will be treated humanely at all times and will provided

-food, water, shelter, clothing, and medical treatment

You have an obligation to ______ an order that results in violation of LOAC.

-Disobey

Specific instructions telling military forces how to operate during a specific conflict or military operation are known as

-Rules of Engagement

A set of minimum, generalized rules that apply during an armed conflict is referred to as the

-LOAC

Rules that regulate the conduct of nations established through treaties and customary practices among states are defined by

-international Law

_______ requires commanders to weigh the military advantage anticipated by an attack on a military objective against the harm caused to civilians or civilian property.

-Proportionality

A key concept for rules of engagement is the inherent right

-self-defense

As a member of the us armed forces, you have an individual duty to all of the following except:

-Cease firing when you do not hear enemy fire

Enemy combatants, military equipment, and military facilities may be lawfully targeted.

-The principle of distinction is used to ensure protection is afforded to places or objects belonging to civilians and noncombatants

Functional Area Records Manager (FARM) Training

December 30, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to CBT Functional Area Records Manager (FARM) Training

1. Who serves as the point of contact for, and monitors the records management program of, their unit or functional area and serves as liaison with the base RM?

a. FARM

2. What is the purpose of maintaining records?

d. All of the above

3. The _______________________ requires AF agencies to create and preserve records.

a. Federal Records Act

4. What is NOT a FARM responsibility?

d. Responsible for physical and legal custody of all records the office creates or receives, Regardless of their physical characteristics, including identifying appropriate disposition authorities (RDS) for records the office maintains according to AFI 333-364.

5. Which publications contain mandates for Records Management?

d. All of the above

6. Who is responsible for scheduling the training for all unit records professionals who create, maintain, and dispose of records?

b. FARM

7. Vital Records consist of only ________________ percent of agency records

b. 3-7

8. Vital Records within an organization may pertain to

d. All of the above

9. What are the electronic records keeping responsibilities of the FARM?

e. a, b, and d only.

10. Only the RC is responsible for maintaining records.

b. False

Air Force Culture General Course

December 30, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the questions and answers to CBT Air Force Culture General Course

Culture is described as everything humans do that is not strictly necessary for _________.

-Survival

All of the following are visible expressions of culture except?

-Values

A status that is earned, rather than inherited at birth, is called________.

-Attained

Perspective taking includes subordinating your beliefs to that of the host culture.

-False

The process of understanding another culture using their cultural lens rather than your own is known as _________.

- Perspective Taking

The collective perspective shared by members of a culture is referred to as _________.

- World view

Cultural domains are interconnected

-True

How many domains are included in the Air Force model of culture?

-12

Cultures that attempt to maintain their historic patterns and resist change are usually described as _________.

-Traditional

Impression Management assumes that most people want to be viewed __________ by others.

- Favorably

The 3 Steps of Impression Management are

- Monitor you behavior, interpret cues, and regulate your emotions.

Don’t worry about showing your frustrations when dealing with the locals. Next time they’ll know you mean business, and be more willing to help you out.

-False

A NATIONAL CULTURE IS OFTEN TAUGHT TO CREATE UNITY BETWEEN MEMBERS OF A SOCIETY. AN ETHINIC GROUP IS COMPOSED OF PEOPLE WITH A SHARED CULUTRE, WHO RECOGNIZE THEIR RELATIONSHIP TO EACH OTHER. WHICH IMAGE BELOW REPRESENTS A COUTNRY THAT IS MORE EHTINCALLY HOMOGENOUS THAN THE OTHER?
A) IS THE ANSWER

4. FOR CULTURAL COMPTETNACE, WHAT SHOULD BE YOUR BEST STRATEGY WHILE IMMERSED IN ANOTHER CULTURE?
B) ADAPT TO IT. TAKE THE OTHERS' PERSPECTIVE INTO ACCOUNT WHEN DEALING WITH THEM. SEE THINGS THEIR WAY

5. SLOW CULTURE CHANGE IS SOMETHIMES INTENTIONAL. CULTURES THAT TRY TO MAINTAIN THEIR HISTORIC PATTERNS AND PREVENT CHANGE ARE USUALLY DESCRIBED AS A) TRADITIONAL

USFK TDY Theater Specific Required Training

December 30, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the questions and answers to USFK TDY Theater Specific Required Training

The Combined Forces Command has responsibility to

-Deter and defend against acts of external aggression by exercising wartime operational control and readiness of provided forces

Which of the following answers is correct regarding must bring items when deploying to Korea?

-Equipment requirements are listed on my orders

In which of the following situations would the ROK have primary jurisdiction?

-A DUI that occurred in a military vehicle

To whom should you report suspected prostitution and human trafficking?

-Courtesy Patrol/Chain of Command

Who is authorized to drive in Korea?

-Permanent party personnel only

Which of the following is a violation of Korean laws and regulations?

-A service member getting a USFK tattoo at a local tattoo parlor

Which of the following is true of SOFA?

-SOFA is legally binding

Black marketing is

-The transfer of tax free items to non-USFK members

Commander, USFK provides support and capabilities to which two organizations

-Combined Forces Command and United Nations Command

SERE 100.2 + Pre Test Complete Questions and Answers

April 28, 2017 Guest User

This Article will provide you the complete questions and answers for SERE 100.2

SERE 100.2 (IF you pass the pretest you don't take the rest of the course)

Which evasion aids can assist you with making contact with the local population?

Blood Chit

Pointee-Talkee

During operations outside declared hostilities, you may delay contact with local authorities.

True

The Principles of Behavior describe the ____________ for DoD civilian personnel when held against their will by entities hostile to the U.S.

Moral obligations

When questioned, should you become a prisoner of war, the Geneva Conventions, requires, but does not prohibit, you from identifying yourself to your captors. Which Principle of Behavior does the statement above refer?

Principle IV

Which reintegration phase moves the recovered person to the Continental United States (CONUS)?

Phase III

What pre-deployment document requires you to provide, four personal authentication statements, full front and right side photographs, and fingerprints?

-DD Form 1833 Isolated Personnel Report (ISOPREP)

What are de-escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence.

-Be conscious of your body language
-maintain a low profile

Which evasion aids can assist you with making contact with the local population? (Select all that apply)

- Pointee-Talkee
- Cultural Smart Cards

What are some techniques you can use to help cope with the psychological effects of captivity? (Select all that apply)

-Have faith that the U.S. government will support your family
-Reaffirm your will to live and focus on positive reasons to return home
-Keep your mind active by recalling fond memories or designing a house

What are some methods to purify water?

-Boiling vigorously for at least one minute
-Chemically treating water with chlorine or iodine
-Purifying with a commercial micro filter

You should limit your communication with the captor to which of the following?

-Address health and welfare concerns
-Provide the innocent circumstances leading to capture
-Identify yourself
-Ask to be returned to U.S. control

The Evasion Plan of Action (EPA) provides recovery forces the following information should you become isolated.

-Your evasion intentions and key recovery information
-Ensure you detail the factors concerning the methods and procedures you intend to use to communicate with recovery forces
-It helps them to anticipate your actions and intentions should you become isolated

The Code of Conduct is your moral guide from isolation to captivity resolution.

-True

One way to gain acceptance from the local population after making contact is to discuss the similarities between your religions. This helps to show you are peaceful and mean no harm.

-False

Upon your release, a DoD Public Affairs Officer (PAO) will be available to help you. Their goal is to_______________________________________.

-help you regain control over your life
-coordinate your interactions with the media

The Code of Conduct is a ____________ for military members when isolated or held against their will by entities hostile to the U.S.

-moral guide

To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? If captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

-Article III

Resistance is a BATTLE OF WITS with your captor.

-False

An effective memory tool that can assist you with using situational awareness during an isolating event is the acronym PAID-E, which stands for perceive, ______________, interpret, decide, and execute.

-analyze

Which of the following are criteria for selecting a shelter site?

-The area is large enough for you and your equipment
-Provides natural protection from environment, hazards, and threats
-Sufficient materials are available for constructing a shelter

The three basic food sources during isolation are packed rations, animals and insects, and plants.

-True

Identify elements of Article II of the Code of Conduct.

-During military operations outside declared hostilities you may delay contact with local authorities
-Military members are never authorized to surrender

During a hole-up what is your primary concern?

-Security

Which evasion aids can assist you with making contact with the local population?
-Pointee-Talkee

-Cultural Smart Cards

-Blood Chit

Limiting the amount of personal information available to others includes reducing your ______________ footprint, and personal information items not required for your operational mission such as credit cards and other identifiable items in your wallet or purse.

-social media

Identify some posture and resistance constants of an effective resistance posture.

-Bounce back
-Control emotions
-Stall

The two types of reporting isolating events are observer-reported and media reporting.

-False

Which of the following are used to control bleeding?

-Use a tourniquet
-Elevate and immobilize
-Apply direct pressure

The weakened state of the captives' ____________reduces their capacity to collectively resist adversary exploitation efforts. Acceptance of special favors also provides an opening for an adversary's future exploitation efforts against you.

-organization

As part of your resistance posture you should portray ______ at all times.

-innocence

Actions to take when capture is imminent include.

-Try to retain your personal cell phone (correct)
-Sanitize personal or sensitive materials (correct)
-Communicate your situation (correct)
-Leave evidence of presence at capture point (correct)

What evasion aid is tailored to cover an individual operational area, combining standard navigation charts and maps with evasion and survival information?

-Evasion chart

When are personnel ALWAYS authorized to escape?

-When in physical or mortal danger

You should attempt to provide proof of life during any audio or video recording or written documents?

-True

Unlike a wartime situation, where the senior ranking member takes command of all prisoners, in a hostage situation, the most capable member must take command to ensure survivability.

-False

What should you do during USG negotiations for your release?

-Have faith in the USG
-Remain professional and avoid exploitation
-Maintain your honor and communicate your innocence

When providing proof of life what information should you include?

-A verifiable date
-You and your fellow captives' identities
-Your health and welfare

Tactical hand-held radio transceivers, cell phones, satellite phones, and personal locator beacons (PLBs) are devices you could use for electronic communication.

-True

Should your captors provide an opportunity to communicate using written, oral, or video means, you should:

-Provide proof of life

Selecting a signaling site and putting your signal in a suitable location is critical. A signaling site is defined as any site, based on your situation that enhances signaling efforts and the likelihood for the signal to be detected by friendly forces. What is a signaling site criterion?

-Site hidden from potential enemy observation and ground fire
-Recovery possible from/near site
-Sufficient materials for signal construction

During a direct action recovery, you should pick up a weapon and assist the recovery team.

-False

Continuously learning about your captivity environment and the captor is known as ___________________.

-situational awareness

Leaving evidence of your presence supports U.S. Government effort to locate, identify and recover you.

-True

In the event of isolation during operations other than war, the reasons to delay contact with legitimate authorities include.

-Gain situational awareness
-Contact friendly forces

Identify steps in building a fire.

-Carefully place small, dry kindling over the burning tinder
-Prepare adequate amounts of tinder, kindling, and fuel
-Use a platform

What are some de-escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence? (Select all that apply)

-Maintain a low profile

-Be conscious of your body language

To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.

-Article IV

What are the goals of using a disguise?

-Prevent recognition
-Pass initial scrutiny

Addition SERE 100.2 for non-military sources

Which Principle of Behavior expects you to resist adversary exploitation despite the pervasive physical and environmental control retained by the captor? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Principle I
Principle II
Principle III
Principle IV (correct)

Identify some posture and resistance constants of an effective resistance posture. (Select all that apply) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Bounce back (correct)
Stall (correct)
Control emotions (correct)
Respond quickly

When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, the Geneva Conventions, requires, but does not prohibit, you from identifying yourself to your captors. Which Principle of Behavior does the statement above refer? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Principle I
Principle II
Principle III (correct)
Principle IV

Which Principle of Behavior articulates: If held in captivity you should communicate and organize with the community of fellow United States Government and allied captives and avoid actions that may harm them. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Principle I
Principle II (correct)
Principle III
Principle IV

What are some de escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence. Select all that apply

Maintain low profile
Surprise captors
Speak quickly
Be cautious of body language

2) What are some methods to purify water? (Select all that apply)
Chemically treating water with chlorine or iodine (correct)
Boiling vigorously for at least one minute (correct)
Filtering water with tightly woven material
Purifying with a commercial micro filter (correct)

3) You should limit your communication with the captor to which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Identify yourself (correct)
Ask to be returned to U.S. control (correct)
Provide the innocent circumstances leading to capture (correct)
Address health and welfare concerns (correct)

4) The Evasion Plan of Action (EPA) provides recovery forces the following information should you become isolated. (Select all that apply)
It helps them to anticipate your actions and intentions should you become isolated (correct)
Ensure you detail the factors concerning the methods and procedures you intend to use to communicate with recovery forces (correct)
The disposition of hostile forces
Your evasion intentions and key recovery information (correct)

5) The Code of Conduct is your moral guide from isolation to captivity resolution.
False
True (correct)

6) One way to gain acceptance from the local population after making contact is to discuss the similarities between your religions. This helps to show you are peaceful and mean no harm.
False (correct)
True

7) Upon your release, a DoD Public Affairs Officer (PAO) will be available to help you. Their goal is to_______________________________________. (Select all that apply)
help you regain control over your life (correct)
get the true story out to the world
protect any classified information
coordinate your interactions with the media (correct)

8) The Code of Conduct is a ____________ for military members when isolated or held against their will by entities hostile to the U.S.
moral guide (correct)
recommended procedure
mandatory directive
direct order

9) To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? If captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.
Article I
Article II
Article III (correct)
Article IV
Article V
Article VI

10) Resistance is a BATTLE OF WITS with your captor.
True
False (correct)

11) An effective memory tool that can assist you with using situational awareness during an isolating event is the acronym PAID-E, which stands for perceive, ______________, interpret, decide, and execute.
analyze (correct)
acquire
anticipate
alternate

12) Which of the following are criteria for selecting a shelter site? (Select all that apply)
The area is large enough for you and your equipment (correct)
The area is large enough to stand in
Sufficient materials are available for constructing a shelter (correct)
Provides natural protection from environment, hazards, and threats (correct)

13) The three basic food sources during isolation are packed rations, animals and insects, and plants.
False
True (correct)

14) Identify elements of Article II of the Code of Conduct. (Select all that apply)
Surrender is permissible if your life is in jeopardy
Commanders are authorized to surrender their units in all circumstances
During military operations outside declared hostilities you may delay contact with local authorities (correct)
Military members are never authorized to surrender (correct)

15) During a hole-up what is your primary concern?
Fire
Security (correct)
Rest
Food and water

16) Which evasion aids can assist you with making contact with the local population? (Select all that apply)
Pointee-Talkee (correct)
Signaling devices
Cultural Smart Cards (correct)
Camouflage

17) Limiting the amount of personal information available to others includes reducing your ______________ footprint, and personal information items not required for your operational mission such as credit cards and other identifiable items in your wallet or purse.
carbon
mailing list
organizational membership
social media (correct)

19) The two types of reporting isolating events are observer-reported and media reporting.
True
False (correct)

20) Which of the following are used to control bleeding? (Select all that apply)
Apply direct pressure (correct)
Elevate and immobilize (correct)
Use a tourniquet (correct)
Clean with water

21) The weakened state of the captives' ____________reduces their capacity to collectively resist adversary exploitation efforts. Acceptance of special favors also provides an opening for an adversary's future exploitation efforts against you.
support
organization (correct)
military bearing
health

22) As part of your resistance posture you should portray ______ at all times.
innocence (correct)
knowledge
confidence
arrogance

23) Actions to take when capture is imminent include. (Select all that apply)
Sanitize personal or sensitive materials (correct)
Try to retain your personal cell phone (correct)
Leave evidence of presence at capture point (correct)
Prevent recognition

24) What evasion aid is tailored to cover an individual operational area, combining standard navigation charts and maps with evasion and survival information?
Pointee-Talkee
Handheld GPS
Blood chit
Evasion chart (correct)

25) When are personnel ALWAYS authorized to escape?
When the food provided isn't to U.S. standards
When in physical or mortal danger (correct)
After one month of captivity in Peacetime Governmental Detention (PGD)
When facing harsh interrogations

26) You should attempt to provide proof of life during any audio or video recording or written documents?
False
True (correct)

27) Unlike a wartime situation, where the senior ranking member takes command of all prisoners, in a hostage situation, the most capable member must take command to ensure survivability.
True
False (correct)

28) What should you do during USG negotiations for your release? (Select all that apply)
Maintain your honor and communicate your innocence (correct)
Have faith in the USG (correct)
Sign a parole agreement for release
Remain professional and avoid exploitation (correct)

29) When providing proof of life what information should you include? (Select all that apply)
A verifiable date (correct)
Your health and welfare (correct)
You and your fellow captives' identities (correct)
Your religious beliefs

30) Tactical hand-held radio transceivers, cell phones, satellite phones, and personal locator beacons (PLBs) are devices you could use for electronic communication.
False
True (correct)

31) Should your captors provide an opportunity to communicate using written, oral, or video means, you should:
Provide proof of life (correct)
Be nice to the captors to improve your treatment
Not provide information regarding physical condition
Organize to meet captives needs

32) Selecting a signaling site and putting your signal in a suitable location is critical. A signaling site is defined as any site, based on your situation that enhances signaling efforts and the likelihood for the signal to be detected by friendly forces. What is a signaling site criterion? (Select all that apply)
Sufficient materials for signal construction (correct)
Site hidden from potential enemy observation and ground fire (correct)
Recovery possible from/near site (correct)
Site near major transportation route for access of recovery vehicle

33) During a direct action recovery, you should pick up a weapon and assist the recovery team.
True
False (correct)

34) Continuously learning about your captivity environment and the captor is known as ___________________.
coping skills
personal protection
captivity resolution
situational awareness (correct)

35) Leaving evidence of your presence supports U.S. Government effort to locate, identify and recover you.
True (correct)
False

36) In the event of isolation during operations other than war, the reasons to delay contact with legitimate authorities include. (Select all that apply)
Lack of control
Contact friendly forces (correct)
Prevent recognition
Gain situational awareness (correct)

37) Identify steps in building a fire. (Select all that apply)
Carefully place small, dry kindling over the burning tinder (correct)
Use a platform (correct)
Prepare adequate amounts of tinder, kindling, and fuel (correct)
Once the tinder is burning, add large amounts of fuel

38) What are some de-escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence? (Select all that apply)
Be conscious of your body language (correct)
Maintain a low profile (correct)
Surprise the captors
Speak quickly

39) To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.
Article I
Article II
Article III
Article IV
Article V (correct)
Article VI

40) What are the goals of using a disguise? (Select all that apply)
Pass as a Red Cross member
Prevent recognition (correct)
Keep warm
Pass initial scrutiny (correct)

During operations outside declared hostilities you may delay contact with local authorities
true (correct)
false

Upon your release, a DoD Public Affairs Officer (PAO) will be available to help you. Their goal is to_______________________________________. (Select all that apply)
coordinate your interactions with the media (correct)
help you regain control over your life (correct)

2) The Evasion Plan of Action (EPA) provides recovery forces the following information should you become isolated. (Select all that apply)
It helps them to anticipate your actions and intentions (correct)
Your evasion intentions and key recovery information (correct)
Details the methods and procedures you intend to use to communicate with recovery forces (correct)

3) To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? If captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.
Article III (correct)

5) The Code of Conduct describes your basic responsibilities and obligations from isolation to captivity resolution.
True (correct)

7) The Code of Conduct ____________ for military members when isolated or held against their will by entities hostile to the U.S.
describes basic responsibilities and obligations (correct)

8) One way to gain acceptance from the local population after making contact is to discuss the similarities between your religions. This helps to show you are peaceful and mean no harm.
False (correct)

9) Identify some posture and resistance constants of an effective resistance posture. (Select all that apply)
Stall (correct)
Control emotions (correct)
Bounce back (correct)

10) Which of the following are criteria for selecting a shelter site? (Select all that apply)
Provides natural protection from environment, hazards, and threats (correct)
Sufficient materials are available for constructing a shelter (correct)
The area is large enough for you and your equipment (correct)

11) Identify elements of Article II of the Code of Conduct. (Select all that apply)
Military members are never authorized to surrender (correct)
During military operations outside declared hostilities you may delay contact with local authorities (correct)

12) The three basic food sources during isolation are packed rations, animals and insects, and plants.
True (correct)

13) When are personnel ALWAYS authorized to escape?
When in physical or mortal danger (correct)

14) The two types of reporting isolating events are observer-reported and media reporting.
True
False (correct)

15) You should attempt to provide proof of life during any audio or video recording or written documents?
False
True (correct)

16) The weakened state of the captives' ____________reduces their capacity to collectively resist adversary exploitation efforts. Acceptance of special favors also provides an opening for an adversary's future exploitation efforts against you.
organization (correct)

17) As part of your resistance posture you should portray ______ at all times.
innocence (correct)

18) Actions to take when capture is imminent include: (Select all that apply) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Sanitize personal or sensitive materials (correct)
Communicate your situation (correct)
Try to retain your personal cell phone (correct)
Leave evidence of presence at capture point (correct)

19) What evasion aid is tailored to cover an individual operational area, combining standard navigation charts and maps with evasion and survival information?
Evasion chart (correct)

20) Should your captors provide an opportunity to communicate using written, oral, or video means, you should:
Provide proof of life (correct)

21) Selecting a signaling site and putting your signal in a suitable location is critical. A signaling site is defined as any site, based on your situation that enhances signaling efforts and the likelihood for the signal to be detected by friendly forces. What is a signaling site criterion? (Select all that apply)
Sufficient materials for signal construction (correct)
Recovery possible from/near site (correct)
Site hidden from potential enemy observation and ground fire (correct)

22) During a direct action recovery, you should pick up a weapon and assist the recovery team.
False (correct)

23) During a hole-up what is your primary concern?
Security (correct)

24) When providing proof of life what information should you include? (Select all that apply)
You and your fellow captives' identities (correct)
Your health and welfare (correct)
A verifiable date (correct)

25) Continuously learning about your captivity environment and the captor is known as ___________________.
situational awareness (correct)

26) The senior ranking military member should never take command of all prisoners, in all captivity situations, to ensure survivability.
False (correct)

27) What should you do during USG negotiations for your release? (Select all that apply)
Maintain your honor and communicate your innocence (correct)
Remain professional and avoid exploitation (correct)
Have faith in the USG (correct)

28) Tactical hand-held radio transceivers, cell phones, satellite phones, and personal locator beacons (PLBs) are devices you could use for electronic communication.
True (correct)

29) What are some de-escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence? (Select all that apply)
Be conscious of your body language (correct)
Maintain a low profile (correct)

30) Which of the following are used to control bleeding? (Select all that apply)
Use a tourniquet (correct)
Elevate and immobilize (correct)
Apply direct pressure (correct)

31) Leaving evidence of your presence supports U.S. Government effort to locate, identify and recover you.
True (correct)

32) To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.
Article V (correct)

33) Identify steps in building a fire. (Select all that apply)
Carefully place small, dry kindling over the burning tinder (correct)
Use a platform (correct)
Prepare adequate amounts of tinder, kindling, and fuel (correct)

34) In the event of isolation during operations other than war, the reasons to delay contact with legitimate authorities include: (Select all that apply)
Contact friendly forces (correct)
Gain situational awareness (correct)

35) What are the goals of using a disguise? (Select all that apply)
Pass initial scrutiny (correct)
Prevent recognition (correct)

36) What pre-deployment document requires you to provide, four personal authentication statements, full front and right side photographs, and fingerprints?
DD Form 1833 Isolated Personnel Report (ISOPREP) (correct)

37) What are some methods to purify water? (Select all that apply)
Chemically treating water with chlorine or iodine (correct)
Boiling vigorously for at least one minute (correct)
Purifying with a commercial micro filter (correct)

38) You should limit your communication with the captor to which of the following? (Select all that apply)
State the innocent circumstances leading to capture (correct)
Identify yourself (correct)
Ask to be returned to U.S. control (correct)
Address health and welfare concerns (correct)

39) Resistance to exploitation is a BATTLE OF WITS with your captor.
False (correct)

40) An effective memory tool that can assist you with using situational awareness during an isolating event is the acronym PAID-E, which stands for perceive, ______________, interpret, decide, and execute.
analyze (correct)

Actions to take when capture is imminent include:
Communicate your situation (Correct)
Leave evidence of presence at capture point (correct)
Try to retain your personals cell phone (correct)
Sanitize personal or sensitive materials (correct)

No FEAR Act Complete Questions and Answers

March 22, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to No FEAR Act.

Which term describes a person who exposes and kind of information or activity that is deemed illegal, dishonest, or not correct within an organization?

-Whistleblower

Which term describes the illegal treatment of federal employees of different categories?

-Discrimination

When considering Equal Employment Opportunities and the activities that prohibit disability discrimination, who is considered disabled?

-Anyone who is a qualified individual with disability

Which equal employment opportunity act prohibits sex-based wage discrimination?

Which equal employment opportunity act protects individuals over the age of 40 from discrimination?

-Age Discrimination Act 1967

What are employment related activities that are banned in the federal workplace because they violate the merit system and were created to promote overall fairness in Federal personnel action?

Which prohibited personnel practice addresses improper hiring practices based on agency officials knowingly giving preference to one prospect over another?

The Office of Special counsel handles complaints and duplicates the process of Equal Employment Opportunity commission regarding discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, age, and national origin.

Who should you contact if you feel discriminated against for sexual orientation?

You believe you have observed a gross waste of funds, abuse of authority, gross/mismanagement and specific danger to the public federal workplace. Which office is the best office to seek assistance from or file a complaint?

Which term describes a type of discrimination or harassment where an employee receiver unwelcome suggestive advances?

-Sexual

What is the primary purpose of the No FEAR Act?

-To ensure the rights of federal employees are protected under the anti-discrimination and whistleblower protection laws

Which Equal employment opportunity act requires reasonable and effective accommodations for disabled but qualified people in the federal government?

-Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act

When considering equal employment opportunities, a person is considered disabled if they have a transitory impairment that is short-term and limited to working only one type of job or in one location?

-True

After completing No FEAR Act training, you want to learn more about the Equal Employment Opportunity complain program. Which office is the nest office to seek further information?

-The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) website

Which term describes the Department of the Air Force Zero Tolerance policy towards unwelcome-conduct which creates an intimidating, offensive, or hostile work environment?

-Harassment

Which prohibits personnel practice promotes overall fairness in federal personnel actions by addressing bias based on personal conduct such as sexual orientation or gender identity

-Other discrimination

Which prohibited personnel practice promotes overall fairness in federal personnel actions was created to keep partisan politics out of the work environment?

Which prohibited personnel practice is violated if an employee is hired based on their affiliation with their parents, siblings, or in-laws?

-Other discrimination

If you believe you have experienced workplace harassment and want to file an Equal Employment Opportunity complaint, what is the best office to seek assistance or file a complaint?

-Your local servicing Equal Opportunity Office

Who should you contact if you feel discriminated against for sexual orientation?

When considering Equal Employment Opportunities, it is illegal to retaliate against someone because they filed claims of discrimination, filed a charge of discrimination, or participated in an employment discrimination lawsuit or investigation?

-True

In most cases how many days do you have to contact your local Equal Opportunity office from the date that you believe you were a victim of an unlawful discrimination based on race, color, sex, age, national origin, or disability?

-45 calendar days

What prohibits personnel practice address improper hiring practices based on agency officials knowingly giving preference to one prospect over another?

-Merit System Principle

A disclosure of wrongdoing, such as waste of funds, is protected from reprisal if the disclosure is made to the office of special counsel?

-True

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal agencies? (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 5 of 14) [objective10]
It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination (correct)
It provides guidance to reimburse the Treasury's Judgment Fund
It provides procedures for filing EEO complaints
It provides guidance for filing whistleblower complaints

When considering Equal Employment Opportunities, the difference between the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and the American with Disability Act of 1990 is disability discrimination between federal employees and private sector employee.
-False

Which Equal Employment Opportunity act prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex or national origin?
-Civil Rights Act of 1964

Which prohibited personnel practice addresses improper hiring practices based on agency officials knowingly giving preference to one prospect over another?
-Granting Unfair Advantage

According to prohibited personnel practices, employees who are subjected to non-disclosure agreements waive their rights to whistleblowing protection
-False

Who should you contact if you feel discriminated against for sexual orientation?
-Your local servicing Equal Opportunity Office

Who should you contact if for further information about Whistleblower or prohibited personnel practices?
-Office of Special Counsel (OSC)

Which prohibited personnel practice promotes overall fairness in federal personnel actions was created to keep partisan politics out of the work environment?

- Coercing Political Activity

What are employment related activities that are banned in the federal workplace because they violate the merit system and were created to promote overall fairness in Federal personnel action?

- prohibited personnel practices

Under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 a Federal employee who is authorized to take, direct other to take, recommend or approve any personnel action may influence anyone to withdraw from competing for a job to help or hurt the employment prospect of another person?

False

True or False. Complaints filed with the Office of Special Counsel may be filed online or submitted by mail.

True

What is reprisal according to the Civil Service Reform Act? (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 9 of 13)

Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

True or False. Appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of the effective date of the personnel action. (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 5 of 10)

True

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice: (Equal Opportunity Laws, page 7 of 19)

Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

What proactive actions can leadership, management and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination? Select all that apply.

* Take employee complaints of harassment and unlawful discrimination seriously, and exercise their responsibility to investigate complaints thoroughly (Correct)
* Contact the EEO office if there are any questions about how to deal with employee complaints of harassment or other unlawful discrimination
* Take appropriate action to resolve the issue, and documenting the situation and action taken
* Take steps to ensure that all workplace policies, practices and behaviors are fair

True or False. The Office of the Special Counsel is an independent Federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than those enforced by the EEOC under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978. (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 1 of 13)

True

What is the purpose of the Merit Systems Protection Board? (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 4 of 13)

To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices

A benefit of a model EEO program is ______________________. (Benefits of a Model Program, page 3 of 9) [objective12]
All of the answers are correct (correct)
A more productive workforce
Improved efficiency of employees
A diverse organization where skilled employees want to work

How many days do you have to contact the EEO office to file a discrimination complaint after learning of a discriminatory event or the effective date of an action? (Benefits of a Model Program, page 5 of 10) [objective13] [Remediation Accessed :N]
15 days
30 days
45 days (correct)
60 days
True (correct)
False

Which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)? (Equal Employment Opportunity Law, page 4 of 19)

* Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
* Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal agencies? (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 5 of 14)

It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

True or False. An individual who wants to file an EEO complaint must contact the EEO office within 45 calendar days of the date when he or she knew or should have known about the alleged discriminatory act, or in the case of a personnel action, within 45 calendar days of the effective date. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 10 of 19)

True

Under the No FEAR Act each Federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data _______________. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 2 of 14)

annually

True or False. Federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force or loss of employee benefits. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 4 of 14)

False

In 2002, President George W. Bush signed the Notification and Federal Employee Anti-discrimination and Retaliation Act, Public Law 107-174, Title I, General Provisions, Section 101(1), requires each federal agency to provide written notification of the rights and protections available to federal employees, former federal employees and applicants for federal employment under federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower laws listed in the No FEAR Act. The No FEAR Act increases the accountability of federal departments and agencies for acts of discrimination or reprisal against employees.

The No FEAR Act requires that federal agencies be accountable for violations of anti-discrimination and whistleblower protection laws. To comply with Title III of the No FEAR Act, FEMA must, among other requirements, post a summary of the statistical data relating to the Equal Employment Opportunity complaints filed with the agency. This data is updated on this website quarterly.

For further information regarding the No FEAR Act regulations, refer to 5 CFR Part 724, as well as the DHS Office for Civil Rights and Civil Liberties. Additional information regarding federal antidiscrimination, whistleblower protection and retaliation laws can be found at www.eeoc.gov and www.osc.gov.

DHS Anti-Discrimination Policy Statement

The purpose of the No FEAR Act is to ensure that Federal agencies: (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 3 of 19) [objective3] [Remediation Accessed :N]
- Comply with these laws by requiring agencies to report antidiscrimination complaint data to Congress each year, and publicly post this data
- Are accountable for violations of these laws by requiring agencies to pay back the Department of the Treasury Judgment Fund for awards, judgments, and settlements in Federal lawsuits involving discrimination and whistleblower retaliation
- Notify all Federal employees of their rights and remedies under Federal whistleblower and antidiscrimination protection laws
- Train all Federal employees regarding their rights and remedies under these laws
- All of the answers are correct (correct)

Disciplinary Actions

Under the existing laws, DHS retains the right, where appropriate, to discipline a federal employee for conduct that is inconsistent with federal anti-discrimination and whistleblower protection laws, up to and including removal. If OSC has initiated an investigation under 5 U.S.C. 1214, however, according to 5 U.S.C. 1214(f), DHS must seek approval from the special counsel to discipline employees for, among other activities, engaging in prohibited retaliation. Nothing in the No FEAR Act alters existing laws or permits DHS to take unfounded disciplinary action against a Federal employee or to violate the procedural rights of a federal employee who has been accused of discrimination.

Retaliation for Engaging in Protected Activity

A federal employee, including a DHS employee, may not retaliate against an employee or applicant for employment because that individual exercises his or her rights under any of the federal antidiscrimination or whistleblower protection laws listed above. If you believe that you are the victim of retaliation for engaging in protected activity, you must follow, as appropriate, the procedures described in the antidiscrimination laws and whistleblower protection laws sections or, if applicable, the administrative or negotiated grievance procedures in order to pursue any legal remedy.

Whistleblower Protection Laws

A federal employee--including a DHS employee--with authority to take, direct others to take, recommend or approve any personnel action must not use that authority to take or fail to take, or threaten to take or fail to take, a personnel action against an employee or applicant because of disclosure of information by that individual that is reasonably believed to evidence violations of: law, rule or regulation; gross mismanagement; gross waste of funds; an abuse of authority; or a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety, unless disclosure of such information is specifically prohibited by law and such information is specifically required by executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or the conduct of foreign affairs.

Retaliation against an employee or applicant for making a protected disclosure is prohibited by 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(8). If you believe you have been the victim of whistleblower retaliation, you may file a written complaint (Form OSC-11) online at www.osc.gov or at the below address:

U.S. Office of Special Counsel
1730 M Street, NW., Suite 218,
Washington, DC 20036-4505

Biometrics Awareness

February 20, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to Biometrics Awareness

What are the two types of biometrics?

-Behavioral and physiological

Biometrics were first used to:

-Track local nationals overseas

What is the most accurate biometric modality?

-Iris scan

Handheld Interagency Identity Detection Equipment (HIIDE) technology:

-Collects iris, fingerprint, photograph, and biographical data

The very best facial recognition software on the market is only ____% effective.

-85%

Biometric Identification System for Access (BISA) information is stored on

-The MNF-I badge

What does the Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System (IAFIS) provide?

-Automated fingerprint search capabilities

Which is not a mission supported by biometrics?

-Locally Employed Personnel (LEP) skills training

The Automated Biometric Identification System (ABIS) is:

-an electronic database and associated set of software applications

Service members who collect biometric information

-All of the above

Air Force Risk Management Fundamentals

February 20, 2017 Guest User

This Article will prove you with the Complete Questions and Answers to Air Force Risk Management Fundamentals

Risk Management is strictly the responsibility of the commander.

-False

Which Air Force Risk Management process involves the 5-step process and is used when there is a sufficient time to plan an event or activity.

-Deliberate

In assessing hazards, which elements make up the cross-matrix comparison to determine a risk level?

-Severity, Exposure, and Probability

When is Real-Time Risk Management used?

-During an operation or activity whether on- or off- duty.

Real-Time Risk Management is used:

-When there is little time or no time to plan. Often used during the execution phase of an operation where an unplanned change occurs and must be managed. It’s easily applied to on- and off- duty situations.

Which of the following is not one of the four Risk Management principles?

-Apply the process cyclically and continuously

Every Airman has the right and responsibility to call a “knock it off” or “time out” at any time during an operation or activity should he/she feel a concern for safety.

-True

What is the goal when making risk control decisions?

-The best level of risk for the total mission/activity.

The decision to accept risk should be made at:

-The appropriate level

The five steps of the Air Force Risk Management process are:

-Identify hazards, analyze risk control measures, assess risk levels, make risk decisions, and plan risk avoidance.

The Real-Time Risk Management method, ABCD, is an easy tool designed to assist individuals to quickly recall Risk Management steps during the execution phase of an activity.

-True

A good decision making system will:

-All of the above.

What are the fundamental goals of Risk Management?

-To enhance mission/activity effectiveness, preserve assets, and safeguard health and welfare.

What is the purpose of feedback and lessons learned in the RM process?

-It provides data for decision makers and personnel to evaluate an operation/activity and to determine if RM strategies need to be modified for future efforts (on- or off- duty)

What are the two primary levels of the Air Force Risk Management?

-Deliberate and Real-Time

What is the Wingman concept as it relates to Risk Management?

-A commitment between Airmen to watch over one another, accomplish the mission/activity and keep each other safe.

Even high-risk endeavors may be undertaken when there is clear knowledge that the sum of the benefits exceed the sum of the overall costs. Risk management is about controlling risks, not avoiding all risks.

-True

What type of risk is acceptable in the risk management process?

-A necessary risk with benefits that outweigh the costs

Risk Management is only meant to be used on-duty?

-False

Risk management involves sound decision-making accountability and flexibility.

-True

What three tools are typically used to identify hazards?

-5M model, Preliminary Hazard Analysis, and What-If Tool

Risk management is really about accountability, wingmanship, and communication.

-True

Risk management is a proactive decision making process to determine the best course of action in order to accomplish a mission/activity and preserve Air Force assets.

-True

Which level of Risk management is most often used in the workplace?

-Deliberate

A hazard is defined as:

-Any real or potential condition that can cause mission/activity degradation; injury, illness, or death to personnel; or damage to or loss of equipment or property.

Human Relations CTIP Complete Questions and Answers

February 12, 2017 Guest User

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers to Human Relations CTIP

Labor traffickers are most likely to take advantage of employees in which of the following professions?

-Janitorial services

-Hospitality industry

Which of the following is NOT a step of the investigation procedure for Department of Defense law enforcement responding to a potential trafficking in persons incident?

-Threaten to arrest victims if they do not talk

Department of Defense trafficking in persons policy includes which of the following?

-All of the Above

Which of the following is a proper question to ask a victim of trafficking in persons?

-All of the Above

If present at the scene of a crime, which of the following items most likely indicates a sex trafficking situation?

-Sex paraphernalia left out in the open

Which of the following allows a victim of trafficking in persons to remain in the United States to help law enforcement bring traffickers to justice and permits victims to apply for permanent residence?

-T visa

Which of the following is a status or condition where people's debts are used against them to compel them into providing labor or commercial sex?

-Debt bondage

When interviewing a potential victim of trafficking in persons, you should avoid which of the following?

-Pressuring or threatening him or her to talk / Physically touching him or her

Trafficking in persons could take place in which of the following venues?

-All of the Above

Which of the following is NOT an explicit psychological barrier?

-Malnourishment

Trafficking in persons consists of which of the following?

-Labor trafficking / Sex trafficking

When interviewing a potential victim of trafficking in persons in the United States who expresses fear that he will be deported if he cooperates with law enforcement, you should tell him which of the following?

-The TVPA authorizes special visas and other forms of immigration relief to certain victims of trafficking in persons in the United States

Traffickers use which of the following tactics to compel a person in order to exploit him or her for profit?

-All of the Above

If a victim of trafficking in persons is physically compelled to perform labor or commercial sex, then which of the following is present?

-Force

Which of the following is an important part of the investigation procedure for Department of Defense law enforcement responding to a potential trafficking in persons incident?

-Be victim-centered during interviews

Which of the following is a proper question to ask a victim of trafficking in persons?

-All of the Above

Under the Trafficking Victims Protection Act (TVPA), the United States government recognizes which of the following?

-Victims can be foreign nationals or United States citizens / Trafficking in persons occurs within and across borders

Which of the following most likely indicates a labor trafficking situation?

-Men who do not have possession of their own identification documents

Traffickers use which of the following tactics to compel a person in order to exploit him or her for profit?

-All of the Above

If a victim lies about his or her involvement in a trafficking in persons situation, law enforcement should do which of the following?

-Remember that fear, trauma, disorientation, and embarrassment may lead a victim to lie

Labor trafficking would most likely take place in which of the following professions?

-Advertising / Laundry services

Department of Defense contractors can be prosecuted for engaging in trafficking in persons overseas under which of the following law(s)?

-Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) / Military Extraterritorial Jurisdiction Act (MEJA)

Victims may be enticed into trafficking in persons situations by which of the following?

-All of the Above

Trafficking in persons could take place in which of the following venues?

-All of the Above

Labor trafficking would most likely take place in which of the following professions?

-Janitorial services / Food services / Construction

Which of the following most likely indicates a trafficking in persons situation?

-A and B

The Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act (TVPRA) 2013 does which of the following?

-All of the above

Trafficking in persons involves exploiting people for ________________.

-Labor

Trafficking in persons could take place in which of the following locations?

-All of the above

Traffickers exploit people who are vulnerable because of _______.

Illegal immigration status

Language

Age

** All of the Above

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2) Which of the following is an appropriate action is you suspect a trafficking in persons violation?

Ignore the situation

Discuss the situation with your colleagues using social media

*** Contact the Department of Defense Inspector General (IG) at 1-800-424-9098

*** Contact your chain of command

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3) The Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act (TVPRA) 2013 does which of the following?

Provides resources for survivors

Prohibits United States funds from going to any country using child soldiers

Imposes reporting and compliance requirements on federal agencies to prevent trafficking in federal contracts

*** All of the Above

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4) Sex traffickers are most likely to take advantage of individuals in which of the following locations? Select all that apply.

Hospitals

Museums

*** Dance clubs, strip clubs, and bars

*** Massage parlors and spas

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5) Trafficking in persons involves exploiting people for _________.

*** Labor

Personally identifiable information

Drug trade

Gun transportation

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

6) Which of the following items most likely indicates a trafficking in persons situation?

A locked security safe

A run-down restaurant

**** Withheld identification documents

Alcohol

AERO + FERC Complete Questions and Answers

February 12, 2017 Guest User

This Article will provide you with the complete answers to AERO + FERC CBT

During the incident action plan (IAP) development process, existing portions of installation plans such as the Installation Emergency Management Plan 10-2 or Integrated Defense Plan should not be considered or included in the final IAP.

-False

A task force is a set number of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel.

-False

The incident action plan must be in writing for all incidents.

-False

In connection with the Defense Support of Civil Authorities program, which of the following best describes the legal term “Posse Comitatus”?

-A law prohibiting federal military troops to enforce civilian law

Which section below is responsible for the tactical operations at the Incident?

-Operations

Which statement describes what a common operating picture provides during an incident that involves the disaster response force conducting the indecent briefing?

-Provides the ground truth awareness and understanding of an incident

What is the primary consideration for selecting or designating the recovery operations chief? This person be;

-A subject matter expert in the hazards or recovery activities underway within the incident site

The incident command system positions have designated titles. What is the title of a person assigned to the Command Staff?

-Officer

The IC takes policy direction from the senior military representative (SMR). Who is normally the installation SMR?

-MSG/CC

Area command is used when there are______incidents that are being handled by a separate incident command system organization.

-Multiple

Transfer of command from on IC to another IC is determined by the rank of the person assuming command.

-False

When are mutual aid agreements normally developed?

-Well before incidents occur

Which section below is responsible for gathering and disseminating information critical to the incident?

-Planning

The recovery operations chief, in coordination with the emergency operations center director and supported from various, directs recovery and restoration of the incident site.

-emergency support functions

The incident action plan must be in writing for which of the following incidents?

-A hazardous materials is involved in the incident

When local and state authorities are overwhelmed by major incidents and request assistance from an Air Force installation, installation commanders may authorize immediate response for which of the following reasons?

-Mitigate massive property damage

Which of the following is an initial response governing principle?

-Determine and communicate protective measures

Fire emergency services will be the IC for incidents that involve more than two response agencies.

-True

A national response framework (NRF) response doctrine principle is; tiered response.

-True

An Incident management team is an incident command organization made up of which two staff functions of an incident command system?

-Command Staff and General Staff

The Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS) incorporates the_____ policies and doctrine.

-National Response Framework (NRF)

When incident command has been transferred, the process must include a briefing of essential information for continuing effective operations. Which element from the list below should be the first one to address during the transfer of command briefing?

-Situation Status

The incident action plan (IAP) consists of multiple components. Which ICS section/unit is normally responsible to prepare the logistics plan component of the IAP?

-Resources Unit

ICS forms must be used to assist the IC and staff to manage the incident.

-False

Examples of some elements of an Air Force multiagency coordination system (MACS) are emergency operations center, crisis action team, and ____

-unit control centers

The IC must maintain a situational awareness or scene size-up of the incident. Which of the following is a scene size-up issue the IC must be aware of?

-Incident complexity changes

All entities involved in managing an incident must use common terminology during response operations.

-True

To standardize common terminology between local, state, and federal agencies, the National Incident Management System created a_____ system.

-Resource Typing

The written incident action plan is developed with assistance from the EOC, ICS command, and general staff. Which of the following develops the incident objectives?

-Incident Commander

The incident command system command function may be conducted in one of two ways. What are these two ways?

-Unified Command and Incident Command

Which section below is responsible for ordering all support to the incident?

-Logistics

Response activities should support the incident priorities established by the incident commander. What are the two examples of these priorities?

-Life safety and mission continuation

When local and state authorities are overwhelmed by major incidents, what program can they use to request federal assistance?

-Defense Support of Civil Authorities

If an incident escalates into a large complex incident and the installation’s support requirements are exceeded, what can the incident commander call upon or implement to request additional support from outside agencies?

-Mutual Aid Agreements

In the incident command system (ICS), the first responder to arrive on scene must initially______

-assume command of the incident.

An example of an Air Force multiagency coordination system (MACS) element is a unit control center.

-True

During the incident action plan development process, SMART objectives are developed. What does the acronym SMART mean?

-Specific, Measurable, Action oriented, Realistic, Time sensitive

Long term recovery operations will most likely require activation of ESF-14, Long Term Community Recovery/Mitigation. Which installation function is the Office Primary Responsibility for ESF-14?

-Civil Engineer Squadron

The purpose of the national response framework (NRF) is to ensure that all response partners across the nation understand domestic incident response roles, responsibilities, and relationships in order to_______ any type of incident.

-respond more effectively to

Common terminology should be used during incident response operations. Which of the following terms would NOT be considered common terminology during a joint military civilian response?

-Eagle One

An example of a “kind” of resource is ____

-2.5 ton truck.

The purpose of an area command is to oversee a single incident when an incident commander is not available.

-False

The IC must maintain a situational awareness or scene size-up of the incident. Which of the following is a scene size-up issue the IC must be aware of?

-Incident complexity changes

Resources needed to support the incident commander are categorized into two categories, kind and____

-type

Which activity below is an example of an activity at the end of the response phase?

-Scene stabilization

The incident command system is organized around five major functional areas; command, operations, logistics, finance, and administration, and

-planning

Until Air National Guard forces are placed on Title 10 Active Duty Status, they act on behalf of the unit’s state governor.

-True

Air Force Emergency Management Program

October 27, 2016 Guest User

This article will provide you with the questions and answers for "Air Force Emergency Management Program (AFEMPC)" CBT.

1. This Function of your installation's DRF directs strategic actions supporting the installation's mission and is activated to provide a command, control, and communication link higher headquarters and comparable civilian agencies, and coordinates the incident response

- Crisis Action Team

Incident types are determined based on the number of resources and the ___________ needed to properly handle the incident.

- Amount of time

2. The AFIMS provides the AF with an incident management system that is consisted with the multiple, broad approach to domestic incident management while remaining flexible to the military unique mission requirements.

- True

3. Which type of incident is typically handled within the first hour after resources arrive on scene and include vehicle fires and personal injury?

- Type 5

4. A __________ is an occurrence, natural, man-made, or technologically-caused that requires some level of a response to protect life, property or the environment?

- Incident

5. The ancillary of missions of the AFEMP are to support homeland defense and civil support operations and to provide support to civil and host nations?

- True

6. This function of your installations DRF is the command and control support element that coordinates information and resources to support the installations actions before and after an incident?

- Emergency operations Center

7. By direction of DODI 6055.17, The AF incorporated their policies, guidance, structure, roles and responsibilities to execute these missions into __________________?

- AFI 10-2501

8. The AFIMS provides the framework with which installation's DFF responds to all hazard events?

- True

9. Examples of this program elements include audible signals, intelligible voice communications, cable override, text messaging, and computer notification?

- Notification and Warning

10. Which type of incident requires multiple fire and patrol vehicles and is usually limited to one operational period?

- Type 4

11. Emergency responders deploy after the first responders to expand command and control and provide additional support?

- True

12. ____________________ deploy immediately to the scene to provide initial command and control, to save lives, and to suppress and control hazards?

- First responders

13. This function of your installation's DRF provides response and recovery support to the incident commander as directed by the emergency operations center and mission support to the installation commander as directed by the crisis action team?

- Unit Control Centers

14. The phases of the AFIMS are response, recovery, and _____?

- Mitigation

15. The _______________________ at your installation is comprised of 4 functions that provide an overall cross functional installation risk management program for developing threat/hazard plans and budgets?

- Planning an management Staff

16. These efforts provide individuals and teams the requisite knowable and skills to efficiently and effetely prevent, prepare for and respond to and recover from natural, man-made and technologically-caused hazards?

- Education and training

17. A type 1 incident is considered the least complex, whereas a Type 5 incident is deemed the most complex?

- False

18. Which type of incident is the most complex and includes nuclear weapons incidents, hurricane recovery and terrorist attacks?

- Type 1

19. The benefits gained by exercises must be maximized through inflated feedback to commanders so the can turn plan, prepare and conduct the appropriate training?

- False

20. Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) directed the establishment of a single, comprehensive National Incident Management System?

- HSPD-5

21. The Readiness and Emergency Management Flight is designated the _________?

- Installation's Office of Emergency Management

In response to HSPD-5, the Department of Defense established _____________, which directs policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for developing, implementing, and sustaining installation emergency management programs at DOD installations worldwide for "all-hazards."

DODI 6055.17

This function of your installation's DRF provides a central dispatch capability for the installation. It includes the core functions of the fire alarm communications center, base defense operations center, and medical dispatch (where applicable). -Emergency Communications Center

CBRN Defense Awareness V2.0 Complete Questions and Answers

June 30, 2016 Guest User

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers for CBRN Defense Awareness V2.0

In which mopp level would you wear the cpo protective mask, gloves, overboots, field gear, and personal body armor

- MOPP Level 4

Which term provides guidance by indicating safe distances to avoid exposure due to chemical vapor hazards from contaminated resources?

- CCOR

Clear access routes into and out of chemical zones used to avoid contamination are called?

- zone transition points

When should you replace your cpo if it becomes wet through the inner lining with any of these materials such as petroleum, oil, hydraulic fluid, body fluids, (urine and feces), and many common insect repellents?

- replace as soon as your mission allows

As part of your GCE you will be issued protective foot covers. The footwear covers are designed to ____.

-Protect your feet and ankles from contamination

What can blister agents do to rubber gloves?

-reduce the protection time provided by the gloves.

Which one is used to decontaminate your equipment?

-M295 kit

Which one has the ability to destroy entire cities and impair electronic communication systems?

-Nuclear weapon detonations

Which one describes the standard hazard markings for biological hazards?

-right isosceles triangle with a blue background and red lettering.

What should you do when issued your CPO?

- Leave items in the factory bag.

What should you do if an attack begins without warning?

- Drop to the ground, don protective mask (if not donned already) and clench buttocks tightly

Which one is an example of active use of M8 paper?

- Dipping a sheet of m8 paper into the liquid

When you are ready to wear your CPO, where should you mark or place your personal identification?

- on the CPO coat and hood

How should you remove your GCE if it is contaminated?

- go to a contamination control area to remove the GCE

What alarm condition indicates the attach is over and cbrn contamination, uxo, and other hazards are suspected or present?

- Alarm Black

If you become contaminated with chemical agents, decontaminate by processing through the CCA within ___ of contact?

- 24 hours

CCOR guidelines are designed to help you avoid chemical agent vapor hazards from chemically contaminated resources?

- True

GCE protective gloves consist of two pieces, the outer rubber gloves and ____?

- inner glove liners

Which one has adhesive coating that is protected by a strip of brown, waxed paper?

- m9 paper

M8 and m9 paper emit toxic fumes when burned?

-true

How long should it take for you to don your protective mask and ensure the seal is airtight?

-9 seconds

How should you remove our GCE if it is contaminated?

-Go to a contamination control area to remove the GCE

Although the m50 mask is not effective in confined spaces, in cbrn enviroments, the mask will protect your ____?

- face, eyes, and respiratory tract from chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles

Which hone has the ability to destroy entire cities and impair electronic communication systems?

- nuclear weapon detonations

The waterproofing bag in the m50 mask carrier is a resealable plastic bag that is used for which purpose?

- to protect the mask from moisture and wet conditions

How long during alarm red should you remain in your current position and under cover?

- Until directed otherwise

When donning the protective mask, expel the air from your lings before performing which step action?

- Perform negative pressure check

In doffing the M50 mask, which step is performed first?

- Remove headgear

In donning your cpo hood, which step comes first?

- pull the hood over the mask

Who decides to implement split MOPP?

- Installation Commander

Which type of device includes any point source that emits radiation without actively dispensing radioactive material across an area?

- RED

During the decontamination process, in a CCA you will____ your contaminated equipment.

- remove

Which type of nuclear burst occurs above 100,000 feet surface level?

- High Altitude

The chemical protective coat and trousers when worn together are call the ____

- CPO

Which type of chemical agent, when released can cause casualties for more than 24 hours to several days or weeks?

- Persistent

U.S. policy bans research, development, production, stockpiling, and acquiring of biological agents or toxins for hostile purposes.

- True

Preparedness actions to counter CBRN attacks at your installation are dependent upon the____

- threat probabilities

Which type of report is submitted by the observer upon encountering enemy activity, to higher headquarters, through the most secure means?

-SALUTE

Used decontamination kits (skin and equipment kits) are considered contaminated waste.

- True

What can be done to make M9 paper easy to remove?

- Make a pull tab on the end

The M50 mask carrier is worn on the left side of the body

- True

Which of the following are pathogens

- All of the above

Which one is a priority for immediate decontamination from CBRN contamination?

- Exposed skin

What should you do if your GCE rubber boots become contaminated with gasoline, oil, grease or cleaning fluids?

- Wipe off the boots and air-dry within two minutes to prevent deterioration.

Which one is used to detect and identify the presence of liquid chemical agents?

- M8 paper

When should you remove your CPO after it becomes contaminated?

- Within 24 hours of contamination

Which alarm condition indicates an attack by air or missile is imminent or in progress?

- Alarm red

What should you do upon issue of your protective mask?

- clean and inspect your protective mask IAW with the M60 mask T.O. and as directed

Why are vital resources, equipment, and assets covered or stored under cover prior to a CBRN attack?

- To protect them against CBRN contamination

The CBRN attack actions include preparedness, recover, and ____

- Response

The best ways to protect against the effects of exposure to _____ are by the time, distance, and shielding

- Radiation

The M50 mask has components that allow you to do which of the following while wearing the mask?

- Communicate and consume liquids

What should you do if the M8 paper indicates positive results?

- Treat it as contaminated and report the results

Which method may be used to deliver biological warfare agents?

- Insect vectors

Attach M9 paper to your protective clothing near the wrists, ankles, and ____

- Both biceps

Which one shields your face, eyes, and respiratory tract from chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles?

- Protective mask

The wavering tone warning signal alerts the base of

- air attacks

Which one is used to make the identification label for your CPO

- M9 paper or olive drab tape

Each M295 kit consists of a wallet containing four individual decon packets. What does each packet contain?

- A decon miss filled with decon powder

Which type of nuclear burst occurs under 100,000 feet but the fireball doesn’t contact the earth’s surface?

- Air Burst

The GCE consists of the protective gloves footwear covers m8 and m9 chemical detection paper the m295 decontamination and the____

- CPO

Which part of the GCE is normally donned first?

- CPO trousers

The CBRN hazard marker for a chemical hazard is a ____

- Right isosceles triangle with a yellow background and red lettering

Short-term storage for the protective mask is when it is stowed for less than 30 days with the head harness pulled back and the straps tucked inside of the mask

- False

Protective actions such as obtaining immunizations and taking preventative medications as well as maintaining a fit and healthy lifestyle are individual protective actions generally for which type of hazard?

- Biological

Which methods are used to deliver chemical warfare agents?

- Theater Ballistic Missiles (TBM)

Which alarm condition indicates the attack is over and CBRN contamination, UXO, and other hazards are suspected or present?

- Alarm Black

A tactic used to divide an installation or operating location into two or more CBRN zones is called____

- Split MOPP

Question: Which one is olive drab and chemically treated to change color when it comes in contact with liquid nerve or blister agents?
Answer: M9 paper

Question: Which M50 mask accessory should be used if storing the mask for more than 30 days?
Answer: Faceform

Question: The M50 mask is not an authorized respiration device for use during industrial chemical spills and may not provide protection.
Answer: True

CBRN Awareness

DOT Classes

Explosives
Gases
Flammable liquids
Flammabke solids
Oxides and organic peroxides
Toxins
Radioactive
Corrossives

Class 1

Explosives

Divisions of class 1

1. Mass explosive
2. Projection hazard
3. Fire hazard
4. Minor blast
5. Very insensitive
6. Extremely insensitive

Class 2

1. Flammable gas
2. Non flammable non poisonous gas
3. Poisonous gas

Class 3

Flammable liquids

Class 4

1. Flammable solids
2. Spontaneously combustable
3. Dangerous when wet

Class 5

1. Oxidizer - supports combustion
2. Organic peroxide !!!7 types!!! - unstable and reactive

Class 6

1. Poisonous other than gas - arsenic, tear gas
2. Infectious - anthrax, rabies, hepatitis

Class 7

Radioactive

Class 8

Corrosives

Class 9

Miscellaneous
Discomfort to a flight crew
Other regulated material - small ammo, nail polish

Awareness level personnel should be able to

Recognize
Protect
Call
Secure

7 indications of HAZMAT

Occupancy type, location, pre incident survey
Container shape
Placards and markings
Other markings and color
Written sources
Senses
Monitoring and detection devices

Pressure container

Rounded ends
Bolted manways
Pressure relief devices
Protective housings

Cryogenic containers

Refrigerated gas
Below -130 F

Low pressure containers

Oval or horseshoe shape
Flat or less round ends
Fittings on top
Spillway

Pipeline details

Owner
Number
Product

Radioactive material containers

Excepted
Industrial - low
Type A
Type B - higher. Big dumbbell
Type C - most dangerous. Rarely used.

Orange stop sign

Class 1 division 1
Detonation hazard

Orange X

Class 1 div 2
Fragmentation hazard

Orange triangle

Class 1 div 3
Mass fire hazard

Orange diamond

Class 1 div 4
Moderate fire hazard

Yellow man in suit

Harassing agent

White man in suit

White phosphorous

Red man in suit

Highly toxic

NFPA 704 Red Diamond

flammability

NFPA 704 blue

Health 0-4 Minimal,Slight,Moderate, Serious, Severe

NFPA 704 White Diamond

Special hazards
W - reacts with water
Ox - oxidizer

NFPA 704 Yellow Diamond

reactivity

ERG yellow pages

ID by UN/NA #

ERG white section

General info

ERG blue pages

ID product by name

ERG Orange Section

Lists response guidelines related to Potential Hazards, Public Safety, and Emergency Response.

ERG green pages

Initial isolation
Water reactive materials

Non pressure tank car

60-100 psi
4-45,000 gal
Also known as low pressure

Pressure tank car

100-600 psi
4-45,000 gal
Single man way on top
Protective housing for gauges

Cryogenic tank car

25 psi or lower
-130 F
White
Tank within a tank

IM-101

25.4-100 psi
Not more than 6,300 gal

IM-102

14.5-25.4 psi
Whiskey and wine

Pressure intermodal tank

5,500 gal
100-500 psi
Pressure plates
Round ends
Pill

Cryogenic intermodal

IMO Type 7
25 or less psi
-130

Tube modules

3,000-5,000 psi
Bunch of tubes together

Dry bulk cargo tanks

No more than 80 psi
Hopper trailer
V shaped

Non pressure liquid cargo tank

406
Greater than 3 no more than 5 psi
10,000 gal
Spill rail entire length
Oval
Outlets on bottom

Low pressure cargo tank

407
2,000-7,000 gal
18 psi
Flammable combustable liquids
Horseshoe shape
Ribs

Corrosive cargo tank

412
5,000-6,000 gal
35-50 psi
Black tar on it for spills

High pressure cargo tank

331 pills are fun
2,500-11,500 gal
100-500 psi
Round ends
Pill shape

Compressed gas tube trailer

3,000-5000 psi

Cryogenic cargo tank

338 refrigerate
5,000-14,000 gal
23.5-500 psi
Tank within tank
Dished ends
Control panel with doors
White

Cone roof tank

0-0.5 psig
Sloped roof
Weak seems

Floating roof w geodesic dome

50,000-1,000,000 gals
0-0.5 psig
Flam and comb liq
Non press

Floating roof w open floating roof

50,000-1,000,000 gals
0-0.5 psig
Ladder on roof
Roof floats
Non press

Lifter roof tank

0-0.5 psig
Covered floating roof
Vents at top
Non press

Vapor dome tank

8,500 gal
0-0.5 psig
Molasses and fertilizers
Titty roof
Non pressure

Horizontal tank

Non pressure
300-20,000 gal
Bull fuel storage

Noded Spheroid

0.5-15 psig
2&3
LPG, methane, light gases
Pressure

Spheroid

3,000,000 gals
0.5-15 psig
2&3
LPG METHANE
Pressure

Sphere

600,000 gals
0.5-15 psig
2
Flam and non flam
Pressure

Pressure vessel

500-40,000 gals
15 psig
2
Flam and non flam gas

Cryogenic large container

500-20,000 gals
Varying pressure over 300 psi
2.2

Bags

Up to 100 lbs
Can carry anything really

Carboy

No more than 20 lbs
6&8
Acids
Glass or plastic in a protective cover

Cylinders

No more than 1000lbs of water
1-2,000 lbs
Oxygen cylinders

Drums

55 gals typically
Open or closed head
3,4,5,6,8&9

Dewar flask

Cryo liquids
Vacuum
Yeti

Cryogenic cylinder

Capacity Varys
Look like a keg

Flexible container

Super sack
Bull bags
500-5,000 lbs
Large woven fabric bag with fill and discharge ports

Rigid container

300-500 gal
Plastic tank with metal supports

Ton container

One ton/2,000lbs of chlorine
500-2,000 psi
3x8'

Fusible plugs

158-165

Y cylinder

Ton container
150-500 psi

Rad storage methods

Excepted
Industrial
Type A
B
C

EPA Number

Manufacturer
Product
Sub registration number

Types of stresses

Thermal
mechanical
Chemical

Types of breaches

disintegration
run-away cracking
closures opening up
punctures
splits/tears

Types of releases

Detonation
Violent rupture
Rapid relief
Spills and leaks

Taco Bell

Dispersion patterns

Hemisphere
Plume
Cone
Cloud
Stream
Pool
Irregular

Hemisphere

Stays on the ground

Cloud

Rises straight up off ground

Plume

Wind or topography influence it

Cone

Triangle shape with wider down range

Irregular

No definitive shape
Someone walked through it

CBRN Hazardous Materials Awareness Training

CWA

Clean Water Act

RCRA

Response Conservation and Recovery Act
Hazardous Waste

CERCLA

Comprehensive Environmental response, Compensation and Liability Act of !980
Superfund

SARA

Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act
right-to-know

OSHA

Ocupational Health and Safety Act
1970
safety officer

NFPA 472

Responders

NFPA 473

EMS

AWARENESS LEVEL PERSONNEL SHALL BE TRAINED TO MEET ALL COMPETENCIES OF NFPA 472 CHAPTER 4

Department of Transportion (DOT), Enivornmental Protection Agency(EPA), and Occupational Health and Safety Act(OSHA)

ERG

Emergeny Response Guidebook

Hazardous Materials

People, the Enivornment, and Property
9 hazard classes

Hazardous Substances

above a certain amount

Extremely Hazardous Substances

released above the thressholdreporting quantity

Toxic Chemicals

must be reported annually by owners and operators of certain facilities that manufacture, process, or otherwise use a listed toxic chemical

Hazardous Waste

RCRA

Hazardous Chemicals

risk to employees if they were exposed in the workplace

Dangerous Goods

Canada/United Nations

Highly Hazardous Chemicals

possess toxic, reactive, flammable, or explosive properties

WMD

Weapons of Mass Destruction
destructive device
any weapon

Class 1

Explosives

Class 1 Division 1

Mass Explosion Hazard

Class 1 Division 1 EX:

Dynamite

Class 1 Division 2

Projection Hazard

Class 1 Division 2 EX:

Detonation cord

Class 1 Division 3

Fire hazard

Class 1 Division 3 EX:

liquid-fueled rocket motors

Class 1 Division 4

Minor explostion Hazard

Class 1 Division 4 EX:

range is excepted
practice ammunition

Class 1 Division 5

Very Insensitive

Class 1 Division 5 EX:

Prilled ammonium nitrate devices

Class 1 Division 6

Extremely Insensitive

Class 1 Division 6 EX:

Squib

Class 2

Gases

BLEVE

Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion

Class 2 Division 1

Flammable gas

Class 2 Division 1 EX:

Propane

Class2 Division 2

Nonflammable

Class 2 Division 2 EX

crygenic gas

Class 3 Division 3

Poisonous Gases

Class 3 Division 3 EX:

Chlorine

Class 3

Flammable and Combustible

Flammable liquid

not more than 140 degresses F

Combustible Liquid

above 140 degresses F

Class 4

Flammable and Combustible Solids

Class 4 Dividion 1

Flammable Solids

Class 4 Division 1 EX:

Magnesium

Class 4 Division 2

Spontaneously Combustible Material

Class 4 Division 2 EX:

Pyrophic Materials within five minutes
BBQ(charcoal)

Class 4 Division 3

Dangerous when wet

Class 4 Division 3 EX:

MRE(Magnesium powder)

Class 5

Oxidizers

Class 5 Division 1

Oxidizer

Class 5 Division 1 EX:

ammonium nitrate

Class 5 Division 2

Organic Peroxide

Class 5 Division 2 EX:

organic compound
organic radicals

Type A

forbidden

Type B

can

Type C

cannot

Type D

confinement

Class 6

Poison

Class 6 Division 1

Poisonous Materials

Class 6 Division 1 EX:

venom
tear gas

Class 6 Division 2

Infectious Substance

Class 6 Division 6 EX:

Ebola
Anthrax

Class 7

Radiactive

Class 8

Corrosive

Class 8 EX:

Sulfric acid

Class 9

Miscellaneous

Class 9 EX:

Molten sulfur

ORM-D

Other Regulated Materials

ORM-D EX:

Form, Quantity, and Packaging
Nail Polish

Pre-Incident Plans

seek assistance from the facility manager

Radioactive Containers

protective overpacks or casks

RC Type A

Wooden boxexs or Steel drums

RC Type B

30ft drop and thremal immersion tests
Casks

Pressurized Products

Cylinders

High Pressure Cargo Tanks

331
typically white and filled with propane

Pressure Rail Car

has a single protective housing and transports liquefied gas

High Pressure Tube Trailer

Stainless steeel cylinders, permanently mountedon a semi-trailer
holds compressed gas

Tube Module

Permanently mounted inside an open frame(box-like)

Cryogenic Containers

tank-within-a-tank

Cryogenic Liquid Cargo Tank

338
Fitting is located on the rear of tank

Cryogenic Liquid Tank Car

Fitting is located on the middle side of the tank

Corrosive Materials

small quantities are carried in carboys

Carboys

glass or plastic

Carboys protective boxes

wooden or polystyrene(styrofoam)

Corrosive Liquid Cargo Tank

412/312
like a rib cage on the side
has overturn protection

Flammable Liquids

drums and jerricans
5 gallons- 55 gallons

Non-Pressure Liquid Cargo Tank

406/306
multiply compartments and has more than one fitting

Non-Pressure Cars

More than 1 non-pressure
more than 1 visible fitting

Dru Bulk Cargo Tank

V shape
flat or rounded sides
flat or angular ends

WMD Class 1 Division 1

Mass Dentotation Hazard

WMD Class1 Division 2

Fragmentation Hazard

WMD Class 1 Division 3

Mass Fire Hazard

WMD Class 1 Division 4

Moderate Fire Hazard

Special Warnings "RED"

Highly Toxic

Special Warnings "YELLOW"

Harassing Agents

Special Warnings "WHITE"

White Phosphorous Munitions

Military Marking system

Apply no water

Military Marking System

Wear Protective Breathing Apparatus

Pipeline Markers

Product, Ownership, and Emerency telephone number

Container Marking

Actual name material stenciled on the container

NFPA 704 System

it does not provide you with the name of the material

SDS

Safety Data Sheet

SDS Sections

16 Sections

Physical and Chemical properties

Section 9

Shipping Paper

Proper Shipping Name, Hazard Class and Division, Product Identification Number, UN/NA Identification Number, Standard Transport Comonidy Code(STCC), CAS(Chemical Abstract Service) Number, Packing groups

CAS

Chemicals "social security number"

Shipping Papers/Person Responisble

Highway, Rail, Water, Air

Highway

Bill of Lading
Driver
Cab of vehicle

Rail

Way bill
Conductor/Engineer

Water

Dangerous Cargo Manifest
Captain
Wheelhouse

Air

Air bill
Pilot
Cockpit

Clues and Limitations of Identofying Hazardous Materials/WMD using the Senses

Sight, Sound, Order

Serious Limitations

Close enough to smell- Risk of injury/death
Close enough to see- Risk of injury
Touching- My cause injury
Taste- Not recommended

Targets and indicators of criminal or terrorist activities

Public assembly, Public buildings, mass transit systems, places with high economic impact, military instatutions, airports, industral facilities

Chemical Agent Attack

Minutes to hours

Biological indicators

days to weeks
colorless and ordorless

Evacuation

normally the best option if time is available
remove threatened people from the danger area

In-place Protection

remain inside away from doors and windows and shutting down air system

TEAMCPRP

Thermal, Etiologic, Asphyxiation, Mechanical, Corrosive, Poisonous, Radiation, Psychological Harm

Section 113 CBRN Defense Fundamentals

What does the Biological Contamination marker look like?

Blue background with red lettering.

BIO.

What is the M-40 field protective mask?

Is designed to protect the wearer from field concentrations of chemical and biological agents.

What does the M-40 Mask consist of?

Face blank,

Filter canister,

Dual voice assemblies,

Inlet and outlet valves,

Water drinking system.

What does the Radiological Contamination marker look like?

White background with black lettering.

ATOM.

What does the Chemical Minefield Contamination marker look like?

Red background with yellow lettering and a stripe.

GAS MINES.

What is the vocal alarm for a CBRN attack?

Gas-Gas-Gas!!!

What is the visual alarm for a CBRN attack?

Bend your arms behind your head.

What is the percussion alarm for a CBRN attack?

Metal on metal.

What is the first step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Stop breathing and close mouth and eyes.

Do not take one last breath.

What is the second step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Place the rifle between your legs.

Remove head gear and place it on the weapon.

Remove glasses if you are wearing them.

What is the third step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Remove the mask from its carrier.

What is the fourth step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Allow the hood to hang down in front of the mask.

What is the fifth step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Put your chin in the chin pocket of the face piece.

What is the sixth step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Clear the field protective mask by covering the outlet valve with the palm of one hand.

How do you clear a gas mask?

Cover the outlet valve, with the palm of one hand,

Exhale sharply so the air escapes around the edges of the face piece,

Cover the air inlet port of the canister with the palm of your free hand, and then breathe in,

The face piece should collapse against your face and remain there while holding your breathe.

If the face piece collapses consider it what?

Consider it airtight.

If the face piece does not collapse?

Check for hair, clothing, or other interference between the face piece and your face,

Repeat steps to clear the mask until there is an airtight seal.

What is the seventh step in donning and clearing a gas mask?

Pull the head harness over your head.

What is the eighth step in donning and clearing your gas mask?

Hold the face mask with one hand and tighten the straps with the other.

How long should it take to don, clear and seal a gas mask?

9 seconds.

What does MOPP stand for?

Mission Oriented Protective Posture.

What led to the concept of MOPP?

The need to balance protection with the threat, temperature, and urgency of the mission led to the concept of MOPP.

How many levels of MOPP are there?

6 levels.

Who can raise or lower MOPP levels?

Commanders.

Commanders also have a mask only option.

Protection increases with each level of MOPP, but what decreases?

Efficiency,

The MOPP gear that doesn't cause mission degradation is put on first.

The MOPP gear that effects mission degradation is put on when?

Last.

What is "MOPP Ready?"

When a Marine carries his or her protective mask.

What is MOPP level 0?

Is the condition that exists when a Marine has all of their MOPP gear available but not wearing it.

What is MOPP level 1?

Overgarment is worn, open or closed.

What is MOPP level 2?

Overgarment is worn, open or closed,

Booties worn.

What is MOPP level 3?

Overgarment is worn, open or closed,

Booties worn,

Mask worn, open or closed.

What is MOPP level 4?

Overgarment is worn,

Booties worn,

Mask worn,

Gloves worn.

What is the M8 and M9 detector paper used for?

Detecting contamination.

How long does it take for M8 and M9 paper to detect contaminates?

Seconds, where the M256A1 will take 15 minutes.

What is the disadvantages of the M8 and M9 paper?

Inability to test for vapor hazards and the limited number of agents detected.

How many rolls of M9 paper is issued out?

1 roll per squad or gun team.

Where is the M9 paper worn?

Ankles,

Wrists,

Biceps,

On the exterior of protective clothing.

What is the purpose of M9 paper?

To detect the presence of chemical agents, but will not identify the agent.

How do you use M9 paper?

Blot,

Do not rub on suspected liquid.

Visible droplets.

What color does the M9 change into?

If it comes in contact with contamination,

Light pink,

To

Reddish Brown,

Or

Violet tint.

What is the M8 issued with?

Field protective mask and the M256A1 kit, as an SL-3 component.

What is the purpose of the M8?

Primarily on suspected liquid forms such as:

Puddles,

Small drops,

Barely visible droplets.

How do you use the M8 paper?

Use half sheet, as it is perforated,

Expose paper to liquids.

After dabbing liquid with the M8 paper, what should you be mindful of?

Holding it down, so the liquid contaminations don't get on your glove.

What agent is the color yellow/gold on the M8 paper?

G series,

Nerve.

What agent is the color dark green on the M8 paper?

V series,

Nerve.

What agent is the color pink/red on the M8 paper?

H series,

Blister.

What is something to note with the color of the M8 paper?

Some G agents give a red-brown color typical between H and G colors.

What is something that needs to be done with the M8 paper after having a positive finding?

Testing to confirm results,

Some decontaminates may produce a false positive.

What should you never assume with an area?

That it is uncontaminated.

With an area, when in doubt what should you use?

Retest with an M256A1 kit and report the findings.

How many levels of decontamination are there?

What are the three levels of decontamination?

Immediate Decon,

Operational Decon,

Thorough Decon.

What is Immediate Decon?

Minimizes casualties,

Saves lives,

And limits the spread of contamination.

What is Operational Decon?

Sustains operations,

Reduces the contact hazard,

And limits the spread of contamination to eliminate the necessity or reduce the duration of wearing MOPP gear.

What is Thorough Decon?

Reduces or eliminates the need for individual protective clothing.

What is the best start time for skin decon?

Before 1 minute.

Done by individual.

Stops agent from penetrating.

What is the best start time for personnel wipe down?

Within 15 minutes,

Done by individual or crew,

Stops agents from penetrating.

What is the best start time for an operator spray down?

Within 15 minutes,

Done by individual or crew,

Stops agent from penetrating.

What is the best start time for MOPP gear exchange?

Within 6 hours,

Done by the unit,

Possible Temp relief from MOPP 4,

Limit liquid agent spread.

What is the best start time for the vehicle wash down?

Within 6 hours,

Done by battalion crew or decon PLT,

Possible Temp relief from MOPP 4,

Limit liquid agent spread.

What is the best start time for a Detailed Equipment/Aircraft Decon?

When mission allows reconstitution,

Done by decon platoon,

Probable long term MOPP reduction with minimum risk.

What is the best start time for a detail troop decon?

When mission allows reconstitution,

Done by unit,

Probable long term MOPP reduction with minimum risk.

The techniques with decon become less effective with what?

The longer they are delayed.

With decon, performance degradation and risk assessment need to be considered when exceeding what time period?

6 hours.

Vehicle wash down is most effective within what time period?

1 hour, but could be delayed for logistical reasons.

How do you take immediate action for a nuclear attack without warning?

Upon seeing a brilliant flash of light, an exceptionally loud explosion, or when an alarm is sounded, immediate action must be taken.

Never hesitate in taking immediate action.

How do you react to a nuclear explosion without a weapon?

Immediately drop face down, with head towards blast if possible.

If cover is available, use it.

How do you react to a nuclear explosion with a weapon?

Immediately drop face down, with head towards blast if possible.

If cover is available, use it.

Put the weapon under you, facing downwards.

How long do you wait for debris to stop falling in a nuclear explosion?

90 seconds.

How long should it take to react to a gas attack?

15 seconds or less.

What is a nerve agent?

Produce their effect by interfering with normal transmission of nerve impulses in the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system.

What are the signs and symptoms of a nerve agent?

Pupils will constrict,

Muscles will twitch,

Nasal discharge,

Dyspnea,

Diarrhea,

Vomiting,

Convulsions,

Hyper salivation,

Drowsiness,

Coma,

Unconciousness.

What is the treatment for a nerve agent?

Atropine,

An acetylcholine blocker.

What is the dosage of the atropine auto injector?

600 mg.

What is the self aid for a nerve agent?

Hold breathe and put on mask.

Use the atropine auto injector.

Use the 2-Pam CI injector.

How long do you hold the atropine auto ejector into your thigh or buttocks?

10 seconds.

How long do you wait before getting a second dose of the 2-PAM CI?

10 to 15 minutes as it takes that long for the dose to work.

How many doses of the 2-PAM CI can you give or get?

3 total doses.

What is buddy aid with a nerve agent?

Mark casualty,

Administer in rapid succession 3 sets of the nerve-agent antidotes,

Use casualties own auto injectors,

Do not use your own.

What are blister agents?

Blister agents or vesicants, exert their primary action on the skin, producing large and painful blisters that are incapacitating.

Although vesicants are classified as non-lethal, high doses can cause what?

Death.

What are the common blister agents?

Mustard,

Nitrogen mustard,

Lewisite.

What is "HD?"

Mustard.

What is "HN?"

Nitrogen Mustard.

What is "L?"

Lewisite.

What is a Mustard agent?

HD and HN are:

Oily,

Colorless or pale yellow liquids,

Sparingly soluble in water.

What is the difference between HN and HD?

HN is less volatile and more persistent than HD but has the same blistering qualities.

What is the most sensitive part of the body to Mustard gas?

The eyes.

Usually the first sign of mustard gas attack is pain in the eyes, accompanied by spastic blinking and photophobia.

Where is Mustard gas most effective?

Warm sweaty parts of the body,

Armpits and groin.

What is the set time for blistering agents?

Begins in 12 hours,

but can be delayed up to 48 hours.

What is the primary cause of death for blistering agents?

Massive edema,

or

Mechanical pulmonary obstruction.

What is the treatment for mustard gas?

No antidote.,

Physically removing as much of the mustard as possible, as soon as possible.

What is Lewisite?

Lewisite is an arsenical,

An arsenic based compound.

What does Lewisite do?

This blistering compound is a light to dark brown liquid that vaporizes slowly.

What is the first sign and symptom of Lewisite?

The vapors of arsenicals are so irritating that conscious persons are immediately warned by discomfort, to put on the mask.

What injury isn't likely to occur with Lewisite?

Severe respiratory failure, except in the wounded who can't put on their face masks.

What type of Mustard gas causes intense pain, upon contact with skin?

Lewisite.

What is the treatment for Lewisite?

Immediately flush eyes,

Sodium Sulfacetamide 30% solution,

In severe cases, use morphine to relieve pain,

BAL.

What is BAL?

British Anti-Lewisite, dimercaprol is available in a peanut oil suspension for injection.

What is something to consider with BAL?

It is somewhat toxic and an injection of more than 3 mg/kg will cause severe symptoms.

What do blood agents do?

Interfere with enzyme functions in the body,

i.e., block oxygen transfer.

What are the two blood agents?

Hydrocyanic Acid,

Cyanogen Chloride.

What is "AC?"

Hydrocyanic Acid.

What is "CK?"

Cyanogen Chloride.

What is the set time for blood agents?

Can cause death in a short amount of time after exposure by interfering with oxygen in the blood.

What is the sign and symptoms of a blood agent?

Varies on time exposed,

Either death or recovery happens very rapidly.

What is the time period for death of a blood agent?

Forceful increase in the depth of respiration for a few seconds,

Violent convulsions after 20 to 30 seconds,

Respiratory failure with cessation of heart action within a few minutes.

What is the treatment for a blood agent?

Two suggested antibodies:

Amyl nitrite,

Sodium thiosulfate solution.

What does Amyl Nitrite come in?

Crush ampules.

What does Sodium Thiosulfate Solution come in?

Intravenous.

What does a blood agent smell like?

Almonds.

How do you do buddy aid with a blood agent?

Crush two ampules in the hollow of your hand and hold it to the victims nose,

Repeat procedures every few minutes until up to 8 ampules have been used.

Regardless if Amyl Nitrite is used, what needs to be done after the initial treatment?

Sodium Thiosulfate Intravenous Therapy,

100 to 200 mg/kg over a 9 minute period.

What is the key to successful cyanide treatment?

Speed.

What is a choking agent?

The toxicity of lung agents is due to their effect on lung tissues, they cause extensive damage to alveolar tissue, resulting in severe pulmonary edema.

What are the choking agents?

Phosgene,

Chlorine,

Chloropicrin,

Diphosgene.

What is "CG?"

Phosgene.

What is "CI?"

Chlorine.

What is the most common choking agent?

CG and it's toxic action is representative of the group.

What does phosgene CG smell like?

New mown hay,

Freshly cut grass.

What are the signs and symptoms of choking agents?

Watery eyes,

Coughing,

Tightness of the chest.

When do the symptoms of a choking agent go away?

2 to 6 hours after exposure.

What are the latent symptoms of choking agents?

Rapid, shallow and labored breathing,

Painful cough,

Cyanosis,

Frothy sputum,

Clammy skin,

Rapid, feeble pulse,

Low blood pressure.

What is the latent symptoms result of a choking agent?

Shock followed by death.

What is the treatment for a choking agent?

Bed rest,

Keep victims with lung edema moderately warm,

Treat anoxia with oxygen.

Because no specific treatment for CG poisoning is known, treatment has to be what?

Symptomatic.

What are incapacitating agents?

Are mainly comprised of psycho chemicals, that produce mental confusion and an inability to function intelligently.

What are the ways to deliver an incapacitating agent?

Food and water, as well as aerosol.

What is the high potency of the incapacitating agent?

Logistical feasibility.

What is the effects produced by incapacitating agents?

Mainly by altering or disrupting the higher regulatory activity of the central nervous system.

How long does an incapacitating agent last?

Hours or days. No permanent injury is produced.

When do the first symptoms of incapacitating agents happen?

Within 30 minutes lasting for several hours or several days.

What are the symptoms of incapacitating agents?

Abnormal inappropriate behavior,

Irrational statements,

Delusions and hallucinations.

What is the secondary set of symptoms of an incapacitating agent?

Dizziness,

Muscular coordination,

Dry mouth,

Difficulty swallowing.

What is the standard incapacitating agent in the US?

3-Quinuclidinyl Benilate - BZ,

A cholinergic blocking agent with is effective in producing delirium that may last several days.

In small doses, BZ will do what?

Increase in heart rate,

Pupil size,

Skin temp,

Drowsiness,

Dry skin,

Decrease in alertness.

In higher doses BZ will do what?

Progressive deterioration of mental capability, ending in stupor.

What is the treatment for an incapacitating agent?

Keep victims from harming themselves and others,

Generally there is no treatment for this type of intoxication.

For the treatment of BZ and other compounds known as glycolates, what is the drug treatment of choice?

Physostigmine.

It is NOT EFFECTIVE in the first 4 hours,

However it will be very effective as long as treatment is continued,

Discontinuation of treatment will cause a relapse.

What is riot control/harassing agents?

Is the collective term used to describe a collection of chemical compounds, all having similar characteristics which, though relatively nontoxic, produce an immediate but temporary effect in low concentrations.

What is riot control/harassing agents used for?

Harass enemy personnel or to discourage riot actions.

What is the treatment for riot control/harassing agents?

Generally no treatment,

Removal from the environment is sufficient.

What are the two riot control gases?

Lacrimators,

Vomiting agents.

Physostigmine is not effective when?

In the first 4 hours.

It will be after this time period.

What are Lacrimators

Tear gas are essentially local irritants that act primarily on the eyes.

In high concentration, Lacrimators will do what?

Irritate the respiratory tract and the skin.

What are the principle agents used in tear gas?

Cholracetopheone,

Orthochlorobenzilidine.

What is "CN?"

Cholracetopheone.

What is "CS?"

Orthochlorobenzilidine.

CS gas is basically what?

A Lacrimator, it is considerably more potent than CN and causes more severe respiratory symptoms.

What is CN primarily used for?

Training agent and is the most commonly encountered tear gas because it is not as potent.

CS is more widely used by what group?

The military as a riot control agent.

What is the best protective agent against CS?

Protective masks,

Ordinary field clothing secured at the neck, wrists, and ankles.

Personnel handling CS should wear what?

Rubber gloves for extra protection.

What is the sign and symptom of lacrimators?

Produce intense pain in the eyes with excessive tearing,

Even with the most severe exposures, symptoms seldom last more than 2 hours,

Moderate exposure lasts a few minutes.

What is the treatment for lacrimators?

Generally not necessary,

Fresh air and wind blowing in the eyes.

Chest discomfort after lacrimators can be relieved by what?

Talking.

What is something to note with lacrimators and clothing?

It adheres to it tenaciously and changing clothes may be necessary,

May need to shower as well, because of the hair and facial skin.

What are vomiting agents?

Comprise the second class of agents in the riot control category.

What are the primary agents in vomiting agents?

Adam site DM,

DA,

DC,

They are used for riot control and training.

How are vomiting agents dispersed?

Aerosols and produce their effects by inhalation or by direct action on the eyes.

What is the sign and symptom of vomiting agents?

They produce a strong pepper like irritation in the upper respiratory tract, with irritation of the eyes and lacrimation.

What is the secondary symptoms of vomiting agents?

Violent uncontrollable sneezing,

Coughing,

Nausea,

Vomiting,

General feeling of malaise.

What does inhalation of a vomiting agent cause?

Burning sensation in the nose and throat,

Hyper-salivation,

Rhinorrhea.

The sinuses fill rapidly and cause a violent frontal headache.

What is the treatment for the vomiting agent?

A mask should be worn despite of coughing, sneezing, salivation,

Minutes after putting on a mask, the symptoms will increase, so the victim will think that it isn't working,

Lift it, every so often to drain the vomit and mucus.

What is something to consider with vomiting agents and the mission?

Combat duties can still be performed if the individual is motivated enough.

What is the first aid treatment of vomiting agents?

First aid consists of washing the skin and rinsing the eyes and mouth,

A mild analgesic may be given to relieve a headache.

What is the recovery time for a vomiting agent?

Recovery is usually spontaneous and complete within 1 to 3 hours.

What are screening smokes?

Screening smokes fit in with riot control agents.

What is the primary use of screening smokes?

To obscure vision and hide targets or areas.

Screening smokes are not generally considered what?

Toxic.

Heavy exposure near the source of screening smokes may do what?

Cause illness or even death.

Where shouldn't you use screening smokes?

Activated indoors or in closed compartments.

Symptomatic treatment of medical problems or discomfort resulting from exposure to screening smokes will do what?

Generally suffice.

What is white phosphorus?

WP is a pale, waxy solid that ignites spontaneously on contact with air to give a hot, dense, white smoke composed of phosphorus pentoxide particles.

While field concentrations of the smoke may cause temporary irritation to the eyes, nose and throat, casualties of the smoke, have not occurred where?

In combat operations.

What is the treatment for the WP?

No treatment is necessary and the patient usually recovers once removed from the WP source.

WP smoke not only obscures the field of vision but also has a secondary when it touches what?

The skin of the victim.

When burning particles of the WP embed into the skin, what must be done?

Cover the skin with:

Water,

Wet cloth,

Or mud.

What is the solution for a white phosphorus burn?

0.5 percent solution of copper sulfate may be used as a rinse, but not as a dressing.

How are the phosphorus particles removed from the skin?

Surgically.

Army CBRN Hazmat Awareness Training

CWA

Clean Water Act

EPA 40 CFR 300-311

Environmental Protection Agency

NFPA

National Fire Protection Agency

DOT 49 CFR 100-199

Department Of Transportation

RCRA

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (hazardous waste)

OSHA

Occupational Safety and Health Administration ( 29 CFR)

Awareness-level responders

Recognize, protect, call, and secure

toxic chemicals

Must be reported annually

hazardous chemical

Risk to employees

Hazardous material (DOT)

Covers 9 hazard classes; regulated by EPA

Dangerous Goods

Alternate term for hazardous materials used in Canada and by United Nations

hazardous waste

Regulated under resources, conservation, and recovery act (RCRA)

Hazardous Material (NFPA 472)

A substance that when released is capable of creating harm to people, environment, & property

hazardous substance (EPA)

Above a certain amount must be reported ( EPA ONLY AGENCY TO USE "SUBSTANCES")

Highly Hazardous Chemicals

Posses toxic, reactive, flammable, or explosive properties

Extremely Hazardous Substances (40 CFR 355)

EPA uses the term for chemicals that must be reported to the appropriate authorities if released above the threshold reporting quantity.

Implement

To put into action; execute

survey

Survey hazardous materials

Collect

Collect hazard information

detect

Detect the presence of hazardous materials

weapons of mass destruction (WMD)

Weapons involving toxic/poisonous chemicals, disease organism, release radioactivity

Class 1

Explosives

Class 1 Major Hazard

explosion

División 1.1

Mass explosion hazard

División 1.1 examples

Dynamite, TNT

División 1.2

Projection hazard

División 1.2 examples

Detonation cord

División 1.3

Fire hazard

División 1.3 examples

Rocket

División 1.4

Minor explosion hazard

División 1.4 examples

Ammunition

División 1.5

Very insensitive explosion

División 1.5 examples

Ammonium nitrate

División 1.6

Extremely insensitive explosion

División 1.6 examples

Squibs

Class 2

gases

Class 2 Major Hazard

BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion)

División 2.1

Flammable Gasses

División 2.1 examples

Propane, methyl chlorine

División 2.2

Non-flammable/ non-poisonous gasses

División 2.2 examples

Carbon dioxide, nitrogen, anhydrous ammonia

División 2.3

Poisonous gasses

División 2.3 examples

Arrime chlorine

Class 3

flammable and combustible liquids

Class 3 Major Hazard

Burns readily
-No divisions

Class 3 Flammable Liquids

Flash point of no more than 140 F

Class 3 Flammable Liquids examples

Acetone, gasoline, toluene

Class 3 combustible liquids

Flash point of more than 140F

Class 3 combustible liquids examples

Oil's

Class 4

Flammable and Combustible Solids

Class 4 Major Hazard

Rapid combustion that releases mass quantities of smoke (toxic)

División 4.1

Flammable solids

División 4.1: flammable solids

Self reactive materials
Readily combustible solids

División 4.1 examples

Nitro gilylose

División 4.2

Spontaneously combustible materials

Pyrophoric Material

Ignited five minutes after contact with air

Self-heating materials

Ignited when in contact with air

División 4.2 examples

Charcoal briquettes, phosphorus

División 4.3

Dangerous when wet

División 4.3 examples

Calcium carbine, magnesium powder

Class 5

Oxidizers

Class 5 major hazard

5.1 supports combustion intensifies fire
5.2 unstable/ reactive explosives

División 5.1

Oxidizer

División 5.1 examples

Ammonium nitrate

División 5.2

Organic peroxide

División 5.2 (A)

Detonate/deflagrate rapidly
Forbidden to transport

División 5.2(B)

Nor detonates/ deflagrate rapidly can undergo thermal explosion

División 5.2(C)

Neither detonate/ deflagrate or cannot undergo thermal explosion

División 5.2(D)

Detonated only partially/ deflagrate slowly w/ medium to no effect

Class 6

poison

Class 6 Major Hazard

Toxicity, Infections

División 6.1

Poisonous material (other than gases)

División 6.1 examples

Tear gas

División 6.2

Infectious substances ( pathogens)

División 6.2 examples

Anthrax, botulism, rabies, tetanus, polio, virus

Class 7

radioactive

Class 7 Major Hazard

Radioactive Burns (0.002 Mc/hr)

Class 7 Example

Cobalt, uranium, hexafluoride, "yellow cake"

Class 8

Corrosives

Class 8 Corrosives

liquid or solid that causes full thickness destruction of human skin at the site of contact within a specified period of time.

Class 8 Example

nitric acid and sulfuric acid and phosphorus

Class 9

miscellaneous

Class 9 miscellaneous

Not included in any other hazard class

Class 9 Example

Adipic acid, hazardous substances such as PCBs and molten sulfur

ORM-D

Other regulated materials

ORM Definition

Limited hazard during transportation due to its form, quantity, and packaging

ORM-D Examples

Furniture and nail polish; consumer commodities.

forbidden

No placard since they are forbidden

Forbidden examples

5.2 (a) materials

marine pollution

A material that has an adverse on aquatic life

Elevated Temperature Material

when offer in transport can be: liquid at above 212F, solid at 464F, liquid w/ flashpoint over 100F

dangerous

Mixed loads ( two or more items)
1001 lbs or above

intent

Intended to cause damage, inflict harm or kill

Severity & complexity

Large numbers of casualties or unusual materials

Crime Scene Management

Preservation of evidence/ extremely important consideration

Incident command

Unified command
Jurisdiction over all incidents involving terrorism

Secondary devices/attacks & armed resistance

Terrorist make target emergency responders in an attempt to kill them

Typical occupancies and locations

Warehouses
Tank farms
Weapons depots
Hospitals
Laboratories
Truck terminals
Flight line areas
Maintenance facilities

Pre-incident plan

Incident plans should be created before an incident

Radioactive containers (type A)

Protective over packs
Low level radiation

High pressure cargo tanks

Propane/ pressurized products
Highway made
Round ends

Radioactive containers (type B)

Casks

Pressure rail car

Propane/ pressurized products
Protective housing

High pressure tube trailer

Compressed gas but never liquified gas( noble gases)

Tube Modules

Compressed gas but never liquified(3.5 k psi)

Cryogenic Liquid Cargo Tanks

Vacuum insulated
Dished ends
Pish design

Cryogenic Liquid Tank Car

25 psi or lower
Box on tank

Corrosive Liquid Cargo Tanks

Overturn protection
Insulted/non-insulted

Non-pressure Liquid Cargo Tanks

Flammable liquids
Highway transportation
Oval ends
Four to five compartments

Non-pressure cars

Visible fitting
Expansión dome
60 to 100 psi

Mhm/wmd markings division 1.1

Mas detonation
Stop sign

MHM/WMD MARKINGS Division 1.2

Explosión w/ fragmentation
X shape

MHM/WMD MARKING Division 1.3

Mass fire hazard
Triangle shape

MHM/WMD MARKINGS Division 1.4

Moderate fire hazard
Diamond shape

NFPA 704 System

Fixed facilities
Minimal information
Does not provide name of material

Dry bulk cargo tanks

V-shaped bottoms
Solids only
Sloppy ends

Red Diamond

Flammability
Located at the top

Special warning chemical hazards

Red highly toxic
Yellow harassing gents
White phosphorus munitions

Special warning

Apply no water
Wear protective breathing apparatus

HCS

Hazard Communication Standard

Pipeline Markings

Must have:
1. Type of product
2. Owner of pipeline
3. Contact number in case of a breach.

Container Markings

Actual name of material stenciled on container

Blue Diamond

Health
located on the left

yellow diamond

Reactivity
located on the right

White diamond

special hazard information

SDS

Safety Data Sheet

STCC

Standard Transportation Commodity Code
7 digits

CAS

Chemical Abstracts Service
(chemical SSN)

Highway

Bill of landing
Driver
Cab

rail

Way bill/consist
Conductor/engineer
Train crew

water

Dangerous cargo manifest
Captain/master
Wheelhouse

air

Air bill
Pilot
Cockpit

Sensor identifying

Sight
Sound
Odor

Serious limitations

Close enough to smell- risk of death/injury
Close enough to see- risk of injury
Touching- may cause injury
Taste-not recommended

Targets and indicators of chemical/terrorist attacks

Public buildings
Mass transit system
Place with high economic impact
Telecommunications facilities
Places with historical/symbolic significance
Airports
Industrial facilities

Chemical agents indicators

Min to hours
Lab equipment
Hazardous materials/ WMD
Dead or brown foliage

Biological indicators

Days to weeks
No characteristic
Colorless/odorless

ignition source

Open flames
Lightning
Cutting/welding operations
Heated surfaces
Frictional heat
Radiant heat
Static

contact

Skin surface hazard/damage
(At aight of contact)

Absorption

Entry through eyes,skin, and through punctures

injection

Through a wound or cut

Ingestión

Through the mouth

TEAMCPRP

THERMAL, ETIOLOGICAL, ASPHYXIATION, MECHANICAL, CORROSIVE, POSIONOUS, RADIATION, PSYCHOLOGICAL.

evacuation

withdrawing troops or civilians

Safety points

Evaluate scene
Visual scan
Avoid touching
Scene control zones
Evacuate

FMF 112 CBRN Defense Fundamentals

What does NATO stand for?

National Atlantic Treaty Organization

Describe a chemical contamination marker

Upside down triangle
Yellow background
Red lettering
Name of agent and time of detection

Describe a biological contamination marker

Upside down triangle
Blue background
Red lettering
Name of agent and time of detection

Describe a radiological contamination marker

Upside down triangle
White background
Black lettering
Dose rate
Date and time of reading
Date and time of burst

Describe a chemical minefield contamination marker

Upside down triangle
Red background
Yellow lettering and a stripe
Chemical agent in mine
Date of emplacement

Which way does the chemical mine marker face?

Away from the minefield

What is the purpose of the M-40 field protective mask?

To protect from chemical and biological agents

What does the M-40 mask consist of?

Mask
Face blank
Filter canister
Dual voice mitter assemblies
Inlet and outlet valves
Water drinking system

Identify the following CBRN alarms:

Vocal
Visual
Percussion

GAS-GAS-GAS

Extend the arms out to the side, make a fist and bend the arms to the ears three times

Metal on metal

How do you DON the M-40 mask?

Stop breathing, close your eyes and mouth

The M-40 mask must be donned within how many seconds?

9 seconds

How many levels of MOPP are there and what are they?

Six

MOPP Ready Carry your protective mask

MOPP Zero MOPP gear available but not wearing it

MOPP 1 Over garment carried, booties carried, mask carried, gloves carried

MOPP 2 Over garment worn, booties carried, mask carried, gloves carried

MOPP 3 Over garment worn, booties worn, mask worn with hood open or closed, gloves carried

MOPP 4 over garment worn, booties worn, mask worn, gloves worn

What does the M9 detector paper detect?

Chemical agents but will not identify them

What color will the M9 detector paper turn if there is a presence of a chemical agent?

Light pink to reddish brown or violet tint

Where do you place M9 detector paper?

Ankles, wrists and biceps

What is the M8 detector paper primarily used for?

suspected liquid forms of contamination

What agents does the M8 detection paper detect?

G Nerve
V Nerve
H Blister

What color will G nerve show up as?

Yellow gold

What color will V nerve show up as?

Dark Green

What color will H Blister agent show up as?

Pink/ Red

What are the three levels of decontamination?

Immediate
Operational
Thorough

What are the 3 Immediate decon techniques?

Skin Decon

Personnel wipe down

operator's spray down

When is the best time to start skin decon?

Before 1 min

When is the best time to start personnel wipe down and operators spray down?

With in 15 mins

Who is skin decon done by?

The individual

Who is personnel wipe down and operators spray done by?

The individual or crew

What is the gain of immediate decon?

Stops the agent from penetrating

What are the Operational decon techniques?

MOPP gear exchange

Vehicle Wash down

When is the best time to start operational decon?

Within six hours

Who is Operational decon done by?

The unit, battalion crew or decon platoon

What is the gain of Operational decon?

Possible temporary relief from MOPP4

Limit the spread of liquid agents

What are the Thorough decon techniques?

Detailed Equipment decon

Detailed Aircraft decon

Detailed Troop decon

When should Thorough decon start?

When mission allows..

Who is thorough decon done by?

Decon platoon or the unit

What is the gain of thorough decon?

Probable long-term MOPP reduction with minimum risk

What are the immediate actions required during a nuclear attack without warning?

Look for protective cover

How do you react to a nuclear blast without a weapon?

Immediately drop face down, with head towards the blast

Use cover if it's available

Close your eyes

Protect or cover exposed skin by putting hands and arms under or near the body and keeping your helmet on

Keep your head down

How do you react to a nuclear blast with a weapon?

Immediately drop face down with head towards the blast

Use protective cover if available

Close your eyes

Protect or cover exposed skin by putting hands and arms under or near the body and keeping your helmet on

Place your weapon under your body or beside you with the strap/sling wrapped tightly around your arm and the muzzle angled away from your face

Remain face down for 90 seconds or until all debris has stopped falling

What are the immediate actions required during a chemical or biological attack?

Stop breathing
Close your mouth and eyes

How long do you have to react to a gas attack?

15 seconds

What are some signs and symptoms of exposure to nerve agents?

Convulsions
Pinpoint pupils
Rhinorrea
Hypersalivation
Local muscle twitching
Dyspnea

How do you treat nerve agents?

3 sets of
2mg of atropine
600 mg of 2PAM/CL

Administer atropine until what occurs?

Atropinization (tachycardia, dry mouth)

These type of agents exert their primary action on the skin, producing large and painful blisters that are incapacitating.

Blister agents

What are the two types of blister agents?

Mustard HN/HD
Lewisite

Signs and Symptoms of Mustard agents

Death
Eyes painful and gritty
Burning on the skin
Blisters within 12 to 48 hrs

Treatment of blister agents

treat the symptoms

How do you treat Lewisite?

Wash with copious amounts of water

30% of sodium sulfatacemide for eye infection within the first 24 hrs

Antidote - British Anti-lewisite (BAL)

What do blood agents do?

Block oxygen transfer

What type of odor does blood agents have?

Almond like-odor

What are the two types of blood agents?

Hydrocyanic acid (AC), Cyanogen chloride (CK)

signs and symptoms of blood agents include

Death
Violent convulsions in 20-30 seconds
Respiratory failure
Forceful respirations

What is the treatment for blood agents?

Amyl nitrate in crushed ampules
100-200 mg/kg of sodium thiosulfate over 9 mins

What agent results in sever pulmonary edema?

Choking agents

What are the four choking agents?

Phosgene CG
Chlorine CL
Diphosgene
Clorosporin

Sign and symptoms of a choking agent

Usually don't occur for 2-6 hrs
Cyanosis
Shock
Clammy skin
Rapid pulse
Frothy sputum
Painful cough
Rapid, shallow, labored breathing
Low blood pressure

Treatment for choking agents

Bed rest
oxygen

What do incapacitating agents do?

Produce mental confusion and an inability to function intelligently

When will signs and symptoms appear for incapacitating agents?

30mins to hours, days to several weeks

What is the treatment for incapacitating agents?

Prevent victims from injuring themselves and others

Physostigmine but not effective in the first four hrs

What are the two types of Riot control/ harassing agents?

Lacrimators or vomiting agents

What are the two gas lacrimators called?

CN and CS

Which gas lacrimator is weaker but last longer?

Which gas lacrimator is more potent and used by the military?

How long does symptoms last for lacrimators?

Over 2 hrs

What are the three vomiting agents?

Adamsite (DM)
Diphenylchloroarsine (DA)
Diphenylcyanorsine (DC)

How are vomiting agents introduced?

Dispersed as aerols by inhalation or direct contact on the eyes

signs and symptoms of vomiting agents include

Violent uncontrollable sneezing
Violent frontal headache
coughing
Nausea
Vomiting
Malaise

What is the treatment for vomiting agents?

Washing the skin & rinsing the mouth & eyes w/ water
Vigorous PT
Recovery w/ in 1-3 hrs

What is the primary use of smoke screens?

Obscure vision and hide targets

Describe white phosphorus

A pale, waxy solid that ignites spontaneously on contact with air to give a hot, dense, white smoke

What is the treatment if white phosphorus comes into contact with the skin?

Cover with mud or wet cloth
.5% of copper sulfate rinse
Surgical removal

Self Aid and Buddy Care (SABC) Complete Questions & Answers

June 30, 2016 Guest User

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers for Self Aid and Buddy Care or SABC CBT.

Which of the following materials should not be used to secure a split?

- Cord

Why should the nasopharyngeal airway not be used if there is evidence of clear fluid coming from the nose or ears?

Answer: This may indicate a brain injury

The edges of the sealing material for an open wound should extend how far past the edge of the wound?

- At least 2 inches

How do you secure an impaled object at the entrance of the wound?

- Using Gauze

Swathes should be how wide?

- 3 to 6 inches

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a fracture?

- All of the above

Which of the following is a sign and symptom of an open chest wound?

- All of the above

To stop severe bleeding of the upper leg, which pressure-point artery should you press on?

- Femoral

Where is the popliteal artery located?

- Behind the knee

What types of symptoms can a casualty display after receiving an insect bite or sting?

- Both B and C

What position should you place a casualty in who has an abdominal wound?

- On his or her back with knees flexed

After using the Micropur MP1 water purifier tablets, how long should you allow before drinking the contaminated water?

- 4 hours

In which heat emergency should you apply cool packs to the neck, groin, and armpits?

-Heat stroke

Which heat emergency should you suspect if the skin of the casualty remains elevated when pinched?

- Dehydration

How should a burn be treated on a fractured limb?

- Dress and bandage the burn before the limb is splinted

What types of symptoms can a casualty display after being stung by a marine animal?

-Both A & B

What should you do if the intestines or organs are lying on the ground?

- Pick up the intestines or organs with a clean, dry dressing and place them on top of the casualty's abdomen near the wound

What should you always do when treating a casualty for heat exhaustion of heat stroke?

-Remove casualty from the hot environment

How long must an ATNAA or CANA auto-injection be held in place to treat nerve agent exposure?

- 10 seconds

What is the primary means of mitigating or treating mild or severe symptoms of nerve agent exposure?

-Administer antidote and anticonvulsant auto-injections

When identifying a coral snake, what is the key phrase to remember?

- Red touch yellow will kill a fellow

What should you do if the combination of extremity elevation and direct pressure do not control the bleeding?

- Add pressure to the appropriate pressure point

Once you apply a tourniquet, how often should you loosen it?

-Never

What can cause a thermal burn?

-Heat

Why is QuikClot Combat Gauze effective in controlling bleeding?

- It causes blood to clot within the wound

How do you stabilize the casualty's head when performing the jaw-thrust technique?

- By placing a forearm on each side of the casualty's head

What should you do if the wound bleeds through the emergency bandage?

- Place a new emergency bandage over the top of the existing bandages.

How do you apply the QuikClot Combat Gauze?

- Unroll the gauze, and pack it directly into the wound while simultaneously applying direct pressure.

When applying the emergency bandage to the head, what is done to prevent the bandage from shifting in place?

- Wrap the bandage at least once underneath the chin and back around the head.

Which of the following are severe signs of nerve agent exposure?

- Convulsions/seizures

For an average sized individual, what injection site should be used to administer nerve agent antidote and anticonvulsant auto injections?

- Upper outer thigh

What should you do if a person expresses intent to harm himself or herself or to harm others?

-Seek immediate medical assistance

To stop severe bleeding of the arm, which pressure point artery should you press on?

-Brachial

When applying the CAT, how many times is the windlass rod twisted?

-No more than three times

In which type of external bleeding is blood less likely to clot?

- Arterial

When should you use the quickclot combat gauze?

- When it is not practical or feasible to apply the CAT

Which types of burns require immediate medical care due to their location?

-All of the above

Which type of snake's mouth is white when opened?

- Cottonmouth

What type of water should be used when washing a wound caused by a sea animal's stings?

- Seawater

An individual is unable to make decisions or process information. Which type of stress does this describe?

- Mental

Which of the following are physical signs of stress?

- Paralysis of limbs, frequent urination, and trembling

What is the purpose of splinting a fracture?

- All of the above.

Shock is the body's reaction to what?

- Blood flow to one or more organs throughout the body is decreased.

Which airway-management technique minimizes the movement of the head, neck, and spinal cord to prevent further injuries?

- Jaw-thrust technique

After measuring, you decide that the nasopharyngeal airway is too long. What should you do?

- Cut it to the correct length, creating an angle.

Why must you seal an open chest wound?

- To stop air from entering the chest cavity and collapsing the lung

How should you treat a casualty's eye injury?

- Apply a bandage to both eyes.

Which of the following will not result in a traumatic brain injury?

- Anaphylactic mishap

Traumatic brain injury may occur after which of the following events?

- Both A and C

What type of burn will cause both an entry and exit wound?

- Electrical

What type of sources can result in burns?

- All of the above

If an individual has an insect bite or sting, what can be used to reduce the chance of an infection and remove traces of venom?

- Rubbing alcohol or an antiseptic

Which type of snake typically has oval-shaped heads and round eyes?

- Nonpoisonous

When treating a snake bite, what should you do with the affected limb to decrease the spread of venom?

- Place the affected limb below the level of the heart.

What factor(s) will determine the amount of fluid (water) necessary to maintain proper body function?

- All of the above

During which heat emergency do you cool the casualty's ody by sprinkling him or her with water?

- Head exhaustion

How many fingers should you be able to slip under the emergency bandage after it has been applied?

-Two

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a poisonous-snake bite?

-All of the above

What type of fracture has bone protruding from the skin?

-Open fracture

Why are open fractures a serious medical condition?

-Because there is an increased risk of infection, damage to the skin, and bleeding

Muscle cramps and muscle spasms are symptoms of which heat emergency?

- Heat exhaustion

What causes abnormally low body temperatures?

- Continued exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures

What should be your first reaction upon being notified of a chemical attack?

- Don your mask and IPE

If you are exposed to a nerve agent, how many ATNAA (antidote) auto-injections should you administer to yourself or to a casualty before seeking medical guidance?

- Three

If more than one wound is found during a quick patient assessment, what should you do?

- Treat the most serious wound first.

In severe heat, how much water can a person lose each hour?
- 1 quart

What causes abnormally low body temperatures?
- Continued exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures

Which type of external bleeding is red in color and rapidly spurts out from the body?
- Arterial

Where is the radial artery located?
- On the thumb side of the wrist

Which of the following signs of generalized hypothermia would a casualty display?
- Casualty may appear drowsy and confused

For thin or small-framed individuals, what injection site should be used to administer nerve agent antidote anticonvulsant auto-injections
Upper outer buttocks

How should you treat a casualty’s eye injury? (this one has been updated)
Apply a bandage to the injured eye only

What should you NEVER do during initial treatment of a suspected venomous snake bite?
Elevate the affected limb

What is the most common type of external bleeding?
Capillary

What is used to immobilize the extremity after a fracture has been splinted and a sling applied?
Swathe

What should you lubricate the nasopharyngeal airway with before inserting it?
Water-based lubricant

When using the emergency bandage, what should you do once the elastic bandage is placed through the pressure bar?

Reverse the wrapping direction, and continue bandaging the wound