Army Land Navigation

What are the basic colors of a map and what do they represent?

Black- man made features
Red-brown- cultural features, all relief features and contour lines on a red-lens reading map
Blue- water features
Brown- relief features
Red- Population areas, main roads, and boundaries

Where is the legend on a map found?

Lower left corner.

What are contour lines?

Imaginary lines on the ground connecting equal elevation, they represent high and low ground elevation.

What are the three types of contour lines?

Index
Intermediate
Supplementary

How many mils are in a degree?

17.7 mils

How many norths are there on a military map?

True north
Magnetic north
Grid north

What are the 5 major terrain features?

Hill
Valley
Ridge
Saddle
Depression

Hidden Valley Ranch Salad Dressing

hill

A hill appears as contour lines forming closed circles. The inside of the smallest circle is the hilltop.

valley

A valley is a stretched-out groove in the land. A valley usually has water running through it.

If you are standing in a valley, three directions offer high ground, while the fourth offers low ground.

ridge

A ridge is a sloping line of high ground.

If you are standing on the center of a ridge, you will normally have low ground in three directions and high ground in one direction.

Contour lines forming a ridge tend to be U-shaped or V-shaped. The closed end of the contour line points away from high ground.

Note that a ridgeline is different from a ridge. A ridgeline is the top of the mountain that you see. It's the line connecting the highest points along a ridge.

saddle

A saddle is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. A saddle is not necessarily the lower ground between two hilltops. It may be simply a dip or break along a level ridge crest.

depression

A depression is a low point, or hole, in the ground.

What are the three minor terrain features?

Draw
Spur
Cliff

draw

A draw is a less developed stream course than a valley. In a draw, there is essentially no level ground and, therefore, little or no maneuver room within it.

spur

A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge. A spur is often formed by two roughly parallel streams cutting draws down the side of a ridge.

cliff

A cliff is a vertical or near-vertical feature. It is an abrupt dropoff.

On a map, cliffs are shown by contour lines very close together or touching each other. They may have tick marks pointing to low ground.

What are the two supplementary features?

Cut
Fill

cut

A cut is a man-made feature. It results from cutting through high ground, usually to form a level bed for a road or railroad track.

Cuts are shown on a map when they are at least 10 feet high, and they are drawn with a contour line along the cut line. This contour line extends the length of the cut and has tick marks that extend from the cut line to the roadbed, if the map scale permits this level of detail.

fill

Like the cut, a fill is a man-made feature. It results from filling a low area, usually to form a level bed for a road or railroad track.

On a map, fills are shown on a map when they are at least 10 feet high, and they are drawn with a contour line along the fill line. This contour line extends the length of the filled area and has tick marks that point toward lower ground.

What is a map?

A map is a graphic representation of a portion of the Earth's surface drawn to scale, as seen from above.

What is an azimuth?

A horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise manner from a north base line, expressing direction.

What is a vertical distance?

The distance between the highest and lowest points measured.

What is the distance between grid lines?

1 kilometer

How many mils are in a circle?

6400

Which north is used when using a map, when using a compass?

Grid north when using a map and magnetic north when using a compass.

Name two ways to hold a compass.

Compass-to-cheek method
Center-hold method

What colors are used on a map overlay?

Blue- friendly
Red- enemy
Black- boundaries
Yellow- contaminated area
Green- engineer obstacles

What is a back azimuth?

The opposite direction of an azimuth.

What is a declination diagram?

Shows the angular relationship between magnetic, grid and true north.

What is the general rule for reading military grid coordinates?

Right and up.

What is a benchmark?

A man-made marker showing points of elevation.

The lensatic compass has a bezel ring; each click of the bezel ring equals how many degrees?

3 degrees.

Two ways to orient a map?

Compass
Terrain association

What does FLOT mean?

Forward Line of Troops

What does intersection mean?

Finding a location by the intersection of two azimuths.

What is resection?

Finding your location by using the interaction of two back azimuths from two known points.

What are the four quadrants of a map?

Northeast
Northwest
Southeast
Southwest

What three things are needed to dead reckoning?

Known starting point
Known distance
Known azimuth

What is a polar coordinate?

Plotting a point using an azimuth and a distance from a known starting point.

The border line around the edge of the map is called what?

The neat line.

What is the contour level?

It is the vertical distance between contour lines. It can be found in the marginal information on the map.

What are the types of slopes?

Gentile
Steep
Concave
Convex

How close will a 8 digit grid get you to your point?

10 meters

How close will a 6 digit grid get you to your point?

100 meters

What would you use on a map to measure actual ground distance?

The bar scale

What does MGRS stand for?

Military Grid Reference System

What does UTM stand for?

Universal Transverse Mercator

What does UPS stand for?

Universal Polar Stereographic

What does UGS stand for?

Universal Grid System

What is the UGS?

The combination of the UTM, MGRS, UPS, and USNG (United States National Grid)

The UGS decides the Earth into what?

Grid Zone Designators

What are Grid Zone Designators divided into?

100,000 M Square Identifier

The 100,000 M Square Identifiers are divided into what?

1,000 M Grid Squares

Wear and Appearance of the Army Uniform

What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?

(AR 670-1/DA PAM 670-1)

Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?

The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the wearer moves forward.

What AR covers the issues and sale of personal clothing?

AR 700-84

When is wearing a combination of civilian and military clothing authorized?

Only when prescribed in AR 670-1 or directed by the Secretary of the Army.

When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear with uniform?

When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but ones the travel is complete, protective headgear must be removed and the army head gear donned.

Soldiers will wear headgear with the Army uniform except under which circumstances?

1)Headgear is not required if it would interfere with the safe operation of military vehicles.
2)the wear of military headgear is not required while in or on a privately own vehicle, a commercial vehicle, or a on public conveyance.
3)Soldiers will not wear headgear inside unless under arms in an official capacity, or when directed by the commander, such as for indoor ceremonial activities.
4)Male and Female soldiers are not required to wear headgear to evening social events(after Retreat) when wearing the Army blue and white uniform, the Army green maternity dress uniform(females only), or the mess and evening mess uniforms.

Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap?

Chaplains

How is the beret properly worn?

The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the head; therefore, soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret.

When is the wear of the Army uniform prohibited?

1)In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment
2)When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations , except as authorized by competent authority.
3)when attending any meetings or events that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization.
4)When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army.
5)When specifically prohibited by Army regulations.

When must Identification Tags be worn?

1)Soldiers will wear identification tags at all times while on duty in uniform unless otherwise directed by the commander
2)Personnel will wear identification tags around neck,except when safety considerations apply (such as during PT)

What does "ECWCS" stand for?

Extended Cold Weather Clothing System

What does DUI stand for, in according to AR 670-1?

Distinctive Unit Insignia

What does RDI stand for, according to AR 670-1?

Regimental Distinctive Insignia

What is the purpose of conservative?

Traditional in style or manner, avoiding novelty or showiness

What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?

Corporal-SGM of the army and also Officers

What does one service strip represent?

3 years of service

How are service stripes placed on the Army Blue Service uniform?

The service stripe is worn centered from seam-to-seam on the outside bottom half of the left sleeve the first stripe is sewn on at an of 30 degrees, with the lower end inserted in the front inside seam, 1/4 inches above the cuff braid. the upper end of the stripe is inserted in the back seam of the sleeve . each additional stripe is spaced 1/8 inch apart from the last, and above the first stripe.

What is the most noticeable difference between the Army Blue Service Uniform trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC and those worn by NCOs in the ranks of CPL through SMA?

The trousers worn by PVT-SPC will not have a gold strip along the legs, but will be found on the pants legs of CPL-SMA

As a "rite of passage" when a soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO Corps, what is added to the Army Blue Service Uniform?

The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be replaced with a Service cap.

What is a CVC uniform?

Combat Vehicle Crewman's Uniform (Tanker's Uniform)

what are the categories of badges authorized for wear on Army uniforms?

1)Marksmanship badges and tabs
2)Combat and special skill badges and tabs.
3)Identification badges
4)Foreign badges

How is the Ordnance insignia worn on the ASU collar?

Enlisted soldiers wear the branch insignia on the left coat lapel (1 inch for males from notch, and 5/8 inch from the notch for females), opposite the "U.S." insignia disk. Branch insignia were first worn prior to the Civil War in the 1850s by Army personnel.

How is the name plate worn on the male dress uniform?

Centered left to right on the flap of the right breast pocket, centered between the top of the pocket and the top of the button.

How is the name plate worn on the female uniform

Worn 1 to 2 inches above the top button of the coat and centered horizontally on the wearer's right side. Females may adjust the placement to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How will ribbons be worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

The ribbons will be center, 1/8 inch above the left breast pocket

How will ribbons be worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

The ribbon will be worn center on the left side ,with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate, Females may adjust the placement of the ribbon to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Blue Service Uniform?

The RDI (C) is worn centered, 1/8 inch above the top of the right pocket flap, or 1/4 inch above any unit award or foreign badges that are worn, when the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of the unit award (B) or the nameplate (A). Also seek (Example 1) aka Flashcard (#21)

Example 1

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Blue Service Uniform?

The RDI (C) centered 1/2 inch above the nameplate, or 1/4 inch above any unit award or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of the unit award (B) or the name plate(A). Also seek (Example 1) aka Flashcard (#21)

Where are unit awards worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

Emblems (B) with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8 above the right breast pocket.

Where are unit awards worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

Emblems (B) with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1/2 inch above the top edge of the name plate(A).

How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

Marksmanship badges (F) are worn One badge: centered on the pocket flap from left to right with the upper portion of the badge 1/8" below the top of the pocket. Two or more badges: equally spaced on the pocket from left to right with the upper portion of the badge 1/8" below the top of the pocket.

How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

Marksmanship Badges (I) are worn 1 Badge: Centered ¼ inch below the bottom ribbon row. 2 Badges: Equally spaced ¼ inch below the bottom ribbon row, and with at least 1 inch between badges. 3 Badges: Equally spaced ¼ inch below the bottom ribbon row. *Females may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Army Blue Service Uniform?

No more then 3

What are the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?

No more then 3

How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted males wear their branch insignia (E) centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the dick approximately 1 inch above the notch , with the center line of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel.

How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted females wear their branch insignia (E) on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5/8 inch above the notch with the center line of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the collar.

How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted males wear their U.S. insignia (D) centered on the Right collar, with the bottom of the dick approximately 1 inch above the notch , with the center line of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel.

How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted females wear their U.S. insignia (F) on the Right collar, with the bottom of the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5/8 inch above the notch with the center line of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the collar.

Witch direction does the belt tab on the male ASU face?

The wearers left

Witch direction does the belt tab on the female ASU face?

The wearers right

Can soldiers wear headphones in ASU'S and or during the Army Physical Fitness Test?

Soldiers may wear head phones, including wireless or non-wireless devices and ear pieces, in uniform while preforming individual physical training in indoor gyms or fitness centers. Soldiers may not wear headphones while taking the Army Physical Fitness Test. Soldiers may not wear headphones beyond the permitted area in any manner, including around the neck or attached to the uniform.

What does ALARACT stand for?

All-Army-Activities

What 4 types of tattoos or branding is prohibited anywhere on a soldiers body?

1)Extremist related tattoos/brands
2)Indecent tattoos/brands
3)Racist tattoos/brands
4)sexist tattoos/brands

What is the purpose of grooming your hair in the military?

To maintain uniformity

What haircuts are not authorized?

1)Extreme
2)Eccentric
3)Faddish haircuts or hairstyles

What hair color is not authorized?

Any unnatural color such as pink,green,blue, (fire-engine red, fluorescent or neon colors, etc.

Describe the male hair cut according to AR 670-1

The top of the head must be neatly groomed. the length and bulk of the hair may not be excessive or present a ragged, unkempt, or extreme appearance.the hair must present a tapered appearance. a tapered appearance is one where the outline of the Soldiers hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the base of the neck.

What male hair cuts are not authorized?

Braids, cornrows, dreadlocks, mohawks, etc.

According to AR 670-1 how far does an individuals sideburns extend?

1/8 when fully extended. sideburns with not extend the bottom of the opening of the ear, Side burns will not be styled,flair, or come to a point.

What are the tree types of female hairstyles?

Short, medium,long

How is short hair defined?

Short hair is defined as hair length that extends no more than 1 inch from the scalp (excluding bangs). Hair may be no shorter that 1/4 inch from the scalp (unless due to medical conditions or injury), but may be evenly tapered to the scalp within 2 inches of the hair line edge. Bangs (if worn) may not fall below the eye brows, may not interfere with the wear of all the headgear, must lie neatly against the head, and not be visible underneath the front of the head gear. The width of the bangs may extend to the hairline at the temple.

How is medium length hair defined?

Medium hair is defined as hair length that does no extend beyond the lower edge of the collar (in all uniforms), and extend more then 1 inch from the scalp. Medium hair may fall naturally in uniform, and is not required to be secured. When worn loose, graduated hair style are acceptable, but the length, as measured from the edge of the total hair length to the base of the collar , may not extend 1 inch difference in length from the front to the back. Layered hair is also authorized, so long as each hair's length , as measured from the scalp to the hair's end is generally the same length giving a tapered appearance......... No portion of the bulk of the hair, as measured from the scalp will exceed 2 inches.

How is long length hair defined?

Long hair is defined as hair length that does extend beyond the lower edge of the collar, long hair will be neatly and inconspicuously fasted or pinned , except bangs may be worn. The regulations for the wear of bangs detailed in paragraph (a) apply. No portion of the bulk of the hair, as measured from the scalp, will exceed 2 inches except (buns,witch may extend the maximum of 3 inches from the scalp) and be no wide then the width of the head.

Are Dreadlocks authorized for female soldiers?

Yes. Dread locks are defined as any matted, twisted, or locked coils or ropes of hair (or extensions), Any style of dread lock (against the scalp or free-hanging) is not authorized. Braids or cornrows that are unkempt or matted are considered dread locks are not authorized.

How are Cornrows defined?

Cornrows are defined as hair rolled (not twisted using two strand) or braided closely to the scalp producing a continuous, raised row of hair.

How must cornrows be worn?

When worn, cornrows must be of uniform dimension,small in dimension,small in diameter (approximately 1/4 inch), show no more then 1/8 inch of scalp between the cornrows and must be tightly rolled or braided to present a neat, professional, well-groomed appearance. Cornrows must start at the front of the head and continue in one direction in a straight line and end at a consistent location of the head. Only one cornrow style (braided or rolled) may be worn at one time.

Are hair extensions authorized?

Yes. Extensions must have the same general appearance as the individual's natural hair color and otherwise conform to this regulation.

Are eye lash extensions authorized?

No. Unless medically prescribed.

Are pens authorized to be exposed on the combat uniform coat?

Yes. pens and or pencils worn in the pen/pencil slots on the combat uniform coat may be exposed. There are no stipulations on the color of pen/pencil worn in the slots on the combat uniform coat.

Are Females authorized to wear earrings with the service,dress,and mess uniform?

Yes. Earrings may be screw-on, clip-on, or post-type earrings. It must be gold, silver, white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6mm or 1/4 inch in diameter, and they must be unadorned and spherical. When worn , the earrings will fit snugly against the ear. Females may wear earrings only as a matched pair, with only one earring per ear lobe. Females are not authorized to wear earrings with any class C uniform ( combat uniform, hospital duty, food service, physical fitness, field, or organizational)

Are males allowed to wear earrings?

Yes. Only when off duty, the earring can not crate or support ear gauging (enlarged holes in the lobed of the ear, greater than 1.6mm.

Are females allowed to carry a hand bag?

Females may carry a black leather handbag with the female Army dress uniform, during and after duty hours.

What did the APFU (Army Fitness Physical Uniform) replace in 2017?

Improved Physical Fitness Uniform (IPFU)

What does the APFU consist of?

1) Jacket,running, black and gold, with the Army logo
2)Pants, running, black, with gold Army logo
3)Trunks, running, black, with Army logo
4)T-shirt, black, long sleeve, with army logo
5)T-shirt black, short sleeve, with army logo
6)Footwear
7)Socks

Are soldiers allowed to mix the wear of the IPFU with the APFU?

No

How is the Physical Fitness badge worn on the APFU?

Sewn on the wearers upper left front side of the APFU t-shirt above the "Y" in the word Army.
On the APFU running jacket, the insignia is sewn centered 1/2 inch above the Army logo.

Who is authorized to wear the Physical Fitness badge?

Any individual that received an 90/90/90 on the Army Physical Fitness Test.

Who is authorized to wear the tan beret?

Rangers

Who is authorized to wear the green beret?

Special Forces

Who is authorized to wear the maroon beret?

Airborne

What Regulation Covers Army Uniforms?

AR 670-1

What does AR 670-1 Cover?

Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia

What does a Soldier's appearance measure?

Ppart of his or her Professionalism

What is a matter of personal pride for all Soldiers?

Proper wear of the Army uniform

Who has a responsibility for implementing and applying the standards contained in AR 670-1 and to ensure the best interests of the Army, including our shared traditions and customs?

Leaders, at all levels

Are Portions of AR 670-1 punitive?

Yes

What may happen if Soldiers Violate specific prohibitions and requirements of AR 670-1?

Violations may result in adverse administrative action and/or charges under the provisions of the UCMJ

Who can approve coats of arms, decorations, flags, streamers, agency seals, badges, and other types of insignia that are approved for use and/or display?

The Institute of Heraldry (TIOH)

Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Optional uniform items?

No

Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Required uniform items?

Yes they can require the purchase of current issued items of CTA 50-900

Who must Maintain their clothing bag items and any supplemental clothing items they are issued and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to AR 670-1?

All Enlisted Personnel

What does Pride in appearance include?

Includes Soldiers' physical fitness and adherence to acceptable weight standards in accordance with AR 600-9

Are Hair and Fingernail Grooming Standards Punitive under UCMJ?

Yes

What is the purpose of Hair grooming standards?

It is necessary to maintain uniformity within a military population

What should Leaders exercise in determining if a Hairstyle is Neat and Conservative?

Leaders at all levels to exercise good judgment when enforcing Army policy

How can Leaders judge the appropriateness of a particular hairstyle?

By the appearance of headgear when worn

How should the Headgear fit?

Headgear will fit snugly and comfortably, without bulging or distortion from the intended shape of the headgear and without excessive gaps

Are Extreme, eccentric, or faddish haircuts or hairstyles Authorized?

No they are not Authorized

If Soldiers use dyes, tints, or bleaches what color must they use?

They must choose a natural hair color

What Hair Colors are Prohibited?

Colors that detract from a professional military appearance are prohibited

What Colors must Soldiers avoid using?

Soldiers must avoid using colors that result in an extreme appearance

What are some hair colors that are prohibited?

Purple, blue, pink, green, orange, bright (fire-engine) red, and fluorescent or neon colors

Who determines if colors are acceptable based on the Soldiers overall appearance?

Army Leaders

Who may cut a part into the hair?

Only Soldiers who have a texture of hair that does not part naturally

If a Soldier is authorized to cut a part into their hair, how should the part be cut?

The part will be one straight line, not slanted or curved, and will fall in the area where the Soldier would normally part the hair

How must the Hair be on the top of the head for Males?

The hair on top of the head must be neatly groomed

For Males, what appearance must the hair present?

A Tapered Appearance

What is a Tapered Appearance?

A tapered appearance is one where the outline of the Soldier's hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the base of the neck

When the hair is combed how will it Not Fall?

It will not fall over the ears or eyebrows, or touch the collar, except for the closely cut hair at the back of the neck

Is the Block-Cut fullness in the back Authorized?

It is permitted to a moderate degree, as long as the tapered look is maintained

Haircuts with a single, untapered patch of hair on the top of the head Authorized?

No they are considered eccentric and are not authorized

What are some examples of unauthorized male haircuts?

Mohawk, Horseshoe, Tear Drop

Is Hair that is completely shaved or trimmed closely to the scalp Authorized?

Yes

What are Sideburns?

Sideburns are hair grown in front of the ear and below the point where the top portion of the ear attaches to the head

How far down are Sideburns Authorized?

Sideburns will not extend below the bottom of the opening of the ear

What is the maximum authorized length of Sideburns?

The sideburn will not exceed 1/8 inch when fully extended

When are Males required to keep their face Clean-Shaven?

When in Uniform, or in Civilian clothes On Duty

How must Mustaches be kept?

Neatly Trimmed, Tapered, and Tidy they cannot present a Chopped off or Bushy appearance

What is the Authorized size of the Moustache?

No portion of the mustache will cover the upper lip line, extend sideways beyond a vertical line drawn upward from the corners of the mouth or extend above a parallel line at the lowest portion of the nose

Who is authorized beard growth?

Personnel who are Authorized by the appropriate Medical Authority by a Medical Profile

What is the maximum length authorized for medical treatment?

The length of the beard cannot exceed 1/4 inch, but must be specified on the Profile

Are Soldiers that have Profiles allowing Beards Authorized to shape the hair growth?

No, they are not authorized to shape the hair growth

How should Soldiers maintain an authorized medical beard?

Soldiers will keep the growth trimmed to the level specified by the appropriate medical authority

Can males wear wigs or hairpieces while in uniform or in civilian clothes on duty?

No, except to cover natural baldness or physical disfiguration caused by accident or medical procedure

What are the three basic categories of Female Hairstyles?

Short Length, Medium Length, Long Length

What is Short Length hair?

Length that extends no more than 1 inch from the scalp, (excluding bangs)

What is the shortest that a Female's hairstyle is authorized?

No Shorter than ¼ inch from scalp

How must bangs be maintained?

Bangs must not fall below the eyebrows, may not interfere with the wear of all headgear, must lie neatly against the head, and not be visible underneath the front of the headgear

What is Medium Length hair?

Hair length that does not extend beyond the lower edge of the collar (in all uniforms), and extends more than 1 inch from the scalp

Is Medium length hair required to be secured?

No, Medium hair may fall naturally in uniform, and is not required to be secured

What is Long Length hair?

Hair length that extends beyond the lower edge of the collar

How must Long hair be secured?

Long hair will be neatly and inconspicuously fastened or pinned, except that bangs may be worn

Is Female hair Authorized to bulge or distort or make gaps in the headgear?

No, When headgear is worn, hair should not protrude at distinct angles from under the edges

What type of Hair Holding devices are Authorized for wear?

Small plain scrunchies, barrettes, combs, pins, clips, rubber bands, and hair/head bands

What are Some examples of prohibited Hair Holding Devices?

Large, lacy scrunchies; beads, bows, or claw or alligator clips; clips, pins, or barrettes with butterflies, flowers, sparkles, gems, or scalloped edges; and bows made from hairpieces

During PT is Long length hair authorized to be in a pony tail?

Yes, A single pony tail centered on the back of the head is authorized in physical fitness uniforms, except when considered a safety hazard. It is not required to be worn above the collar

What is the Authorized use of Cosmetics allowed for Females?

They must be applied modestly and conservatively, and that they complement both the Soldier's complexion and the uniform

How must Males keep fingernails trimmed?

Males will keep nails trimmed so as not to extend beyond the fingertip unless medically required

What is the Maximum Allowed Length of Fingernails for Females?

No longer than 1/4 of an inch as measured from tip of finger

Can a Female be required to keep nails shorter than the Maximum Allowed length of AR 670-1?

Yes, if the Commander determines that the longer length detracts from a professional appearance, presents a safety concern, or interferes with the performance of duties

What is the Authorized Color of Nail Polish while in Uniform?

Only Clear Nail Polish is Authorized in uniform or while in civilian clothes on duty

What are the types of tattoos or brands that are prejudicial to good order and discipline and therefore prohibited anywhere on a Soldier's body?

Extremist, Indecent, Sexist, Racist

What are Extremist Tattoos?

Extremist tattoos or brands are those affiliated with, depicting, or symbolizing extremist philosophies, organizations, or activities

What are Indecent Tattoos?

Indecent tattoos or brands are those that are grossly offensive to modesty, decency, propriety, or professionalism

What are Sexist Tattoos?

Sexist tattoos or brands are those that advocate a philosophy that degrades or demeans a person based on gender

What are Racist Tattoos?

Racist tattoos or brands are those that advocate a philosophy that degrades or demeans a person based on race, ethnicity, or national origin

Where are Soldiers prohibited from getting tattoos?

On the head, face, neck, wrists, hands, or fingers

How many Tattoos are Soldiers authorized below the elbow or knee?

No more than 4

What is the maximum Authorized size of a Tattoo below the elbow or knee?

Must be smaller than the size of the wearer's hand

What is the date of Soldiers being Grandfathered but can get no more tattoos in unauthorized areas?

31 March 2014

What must Soldiers that were grandfathered to the Old Tattoo Policy do?

They must self identify to their commander with locations and descriptions

What must happen if a Soldier is not in compliance with the Tattoo Policy?

They must be processed out of the Army

What Jewelry is Authorized for wear while in uniform?

Soldiers may wear a wristwatch, a wrist identification bracelet, and a total of two rings

Is a Wedding Set considered two rings?

No, a wedding set is considered one ring

What Identification bracelets are authorized

Medical alert bracelets, missing in action, prisoner of war, or killed in action (black or silver in color only) bracelets

How many items are Soldiers Authorized to wear on the wrist while in uniform or civilian clothes on Duty?

Soldiers are only authorized to wear one item on each wrist while in uniform, or in civilian clothes on duty

Are Soldiers Authorized to have any piercings?

No, only exception is Females can wear earrings with the service, dress, and mess uniforms

What type of earrings are authorized for Females?

Screw-on, clip-on, or post-type earrings in gold, silver, white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6 mm or 1⁄4 inch in diameter

Are Males Authorized to wear earrings off duty?

No

Are Males or Females Authorized to wear Piercings off duty?

No, except females can wear only earring piercings while off duty

Can Males or Females wear Ankle bracelets, toe rings, necklaces, devices, medallions, amulets, and personal talismans or icons while in Uniform or on duty in civilian clothes?

No they are not authorized for wear in Uniform or on duty in civilian clothes

Are gold caps, platinum caps, or caps of any unnatural color or texture for teeth for purposes of dental ornamentation authorized?

No

Are Keys or key chains Authorized on the belt, belt loops, or waistband?

Yes as long as they are Not Visible

Are Soldiers Authorized to wear an Electronic Device on belt, belt loops, or waistband of the uniform?

Yes, but Only One Electronic Device can be worn

What color must the Carrying case of an Electronic Device be?

Black Only; no other colors are authorized

What activities will Soldiers not walk while engaged in?

Activities that would interfere with the hand salute and greeting of the day or detract from a professional image

What are some examples of activities that Soldiers should not walk while engaged in?

Walking while eating, using electronic devices, or smoking cigarettes, cigars, or pipes

Are Soldiers authorized to wear wireless or non-wireless devices/earpieces while wearing Army uniforms?

No, except while operating a commercial or military vehicle

Are Soldiers authorized to place their hands in their pockets?

No, except momentarily to place or retrieve objects

What Color must a shoulder bag be if carried in uniform?

The bag must be black or match the camouflage pattern uniform being worn, and may not have any commercial logos

Are see-through plastic or mesh bags Authorized?

No, The contents of the bag may not be visible

How are Soldiers Authorized to carry shoulder bags?

Soldiers may carry authorized bags by hand, on one shoulder using a shoulder strap, or over both shoulders using both shoulder straps

In what Situation is Wearing Army uniforms prohibited?

(1) In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment.
(2) When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations, except as authorized by the first O-5 in the chain of command.
(3) When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization.
(4) When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army, as determined by the Commander.
(5) When specifically prohibited by Army regulations.

What type of Appearance will Soldiers maintain even when in Civilian Clothing?

Soldiers will ensure that their dress and personal appearance are commensurate with the high standards traditionally associated with Army service

What type of eyeglasses and sunglasses are authorized for wear with the uniform?

They must be conservative

What type of Eyeglasses or sunglasses are not authorized for wear?

Eyeglasses or sunglasses that are trendy or have lenses or frames with conspicuous initials, designs, or other adornments

What types of lenses are unauthorized?

Lenses with extreme or trendy colors, which include, but are not limited to, red, yellow, blue, purple, bright green, or orange

What Lens colors are Authorized?

Lens colors must be traditional gray, brown, or dark green shades

When are Soldiers Authorized to wear sunglasses that contain logos or lens colors that are not Authorized?

Soldiers are authorized to wear ballistic spectacle eye protection issued by the Army

Are Soldiers authorized to wear tinted or colored contact lenses?

No, Tinted or colored contact lenses are not authorized for wear with the uniform

What Chapter of AR 670-1 Covers the wear of the Combat Uniform?

Chapter 4

When are Soldiers Authorized to use an umbrella?

Only in Class A and B, dress and mess uniforms

What type of umbrella may be used?

The umbrella is black, plain, with no logos or designs, and of a commercial design

Which Shoulder flag will be worn while deployed or in a field environment?

Soldiers will wear the subdued tactical flag insignia while deployed or in a field environment

Why is the significance of the stars facing front on the Shoulder Flag?

To give the appearance that Our Army is moving forward and not backwards

What does each service stripe represent on the uniform represent?

3 years of honorable service

What does each Overseas service bar represent on the uniform?

6 months of service in a Combat Zone

What does the "V" device represent on an Award?

Denote an award authorized for acts of heroism involving conflict with an armed enemy

What do Numerals represent?

A second and succeeding awards

What do Service stars represent?

An additional award or service in a named campaign

What does and Arrowhead represent?

Denotes participation in a combat parachute jump, combat glider landing, or an amphibious assault landing while assigned or attached as a member of an organized force carrying out an assigned tactical mission

What are the different types of Badges for wear on the uniform?

Marksmanship, Combat and Special Skill badges, Identification badges, Foreign badges

Can a Female Soldier wear a pony tail when going to a Medical Appointment or a Physical?

No; Pony tail is only Authorized when engaged in PT or when enroute to and from engaging in PT

How are service awards worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

The ribbons are centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset

How are service awards worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

The ribbons are centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences

How are unit awards worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8above the right breast pocket flag

How are unit awards worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate

How are Marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.

How are Marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How is the name plate worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

The nameplate is worn centered left to right on the flap of the right breast pocket, and centered between the top of the button and the top of the pocket.

How is the name plate worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

The nameplate is worn 1 to 2 inches above the top button of the coat and centered horizontally on the wearer's right side

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

The RDI is centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

The RDI is centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.

What Regulation Covers Army Uniforms?

AR 670-1

What does a Soldier's appearance measure?

Part of his or her professionalism

What is a matter of personal pride for all Soldiers?

Proper wear of the Army uniform

Who has a responsibility for implementing and applying the standards contained in AR 670-1 and to ensure the best interests of the Army, including our shared traditions and customs?

Leaders, at all levels

Who is Exempt from policies in AR 670-1?

Only Those Units designated for ceremonial duties, such as the Old Guard and the U.S. Army Band, are exempt from the policy to wear the Army service, dress, or utility uniforms in the performance of ceremonial duties

Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Optional uniform items?

NO

Para 2-5 Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Required uniform items?

Yes they can require the purchase of current issued items of CTA 50-900

Why must Commanders conduct periodic inspections of Uniform Items?

1. To ensure Soldiers possess the minimum quantities of uniforms and that uniforms fit properly and are serviceable
2. To ensure Soldiers wear only authorized insignia and awards
3. To ensure Soldiers wear only uniform and heraldic items produced by certified manufacturers, and they meet the specifications for quality and design

Who must Maintain their clothing bag items and any supplemental clothing items they are issued and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to AR 670-1?

All Enlisted Personnel

Who must ensure they Procure and maintain the uniforms and accessories appropriate to their assigned duties and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to specifications of DA Pam 670-1

All Officers

What does Pride in appearance include?

Includes Soldiers' physical fitness and adherence to acceptable weight standards in accordance with AR 600-9

What is a vital ingredient of the Army's strength and military effectiveness?

The pride and self discipline that American Soldiers bring to their Service through a conservative military image

What Chapter of AR 670-1 sets the Standards for Appearance and Grooming Standards?

Chapter 3

Are Hair and Fingernail Grooming Standards Punitive under UCMJ?

Yes

What is the purpose of Hair grooming standards?

It is necessary to maintain uniformity within a military population

What are the guidelines Leaders must use to judge appropriate haristyles?

By guidance in Chapter 3 AR 670-1 Para 3-2A (A) and by the ability to wear all types of headgear (such as beret, patrol cap, or service cap/hat) and any protective equipment (such as protective mask or combat helmet) properly

Who determines if a hairstyle is considered appropriate?

Army Leaders

Who will comply with hair, fingernail, and grooming policies while in any military uniform, or in civilian clothes on duty?

All Soldiers

How can Leaders judge the appropriateness of a particular hairstyle?

By the appearance of headgear when worn

How should the Headgear fit?

Headgear will fit snugly and comfortably, without bulging or distortion from the intended shape of the headgear and without excessive gaps between the headgear and the head

If Soldiers use dyes, tints, or bleaches what color must they use?

They must choose a natural hair color

Who determines if colors are acceptable based on the Soldiers overall appearance?

Army Leaders

Who may cut a part into the hair?

Only Soldiers who have a texture of hair that does not part naturally

If a Soldier is authorized to cut a part into their hair, how should the part be cut?

The part will be one straight line, not slanted or curved, and will fall in the area where the Soldier would normally part the hair

For Males, what appearance must the hair present?

A Tapered Appearance

What is a Tapered Appearance?

A tapered appearance is one where the outline of the Soldier's hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the base of the neck

When the hair is combed what will it not do?

it will not fall over the ears or eyebrows, or touch the collar, except for the closely cut hair at the back of the neck

Is Hair that is completely shaved or trimmed closely to the scalp Authorized?

Yes

When are Males required to keep their face Clean-Shaven?

When in Uniform, or in Civilian clothes On Duty

Are Males required to Shave when Off Duty or on Leave?

No; They only need to be Clean-Shaven When in Uniform, or in Civilian clothes On Duty

How must Mustaches be kept?

Neatly Trimmed, Tapered, and Tidy they cannot present a Chopped off or Bushy appearance

Who is authorized beard growth?

Personnel who are Authorized by the appropriate Medical Authority by issuing a Medical Profile

What is the maximum length authorized for medical treatment?

The length of the beard cannot exceed 1/4 inch, but must be specified on the Profile

Are Soldiers that have Profiles allowing Beards Authorized to shape the hair growth?

No; they are not authorized to shape the hair growth examples include, but are not limited to, goatees, "Fu Manchu," or handlebar mustaches

What are the three basic categories of Female Hairstyles?

1. Short Length
2. Medium Length
3. Long Length

A What is Short Length hair?

length that extends no more than 1 inch from the scalp, (excluding bangs)

What is the shortest that a Female's hairstyle is authorized?

No Shorter than ¼ inch from scalp

How must bangs be maintained?

Bangs must not fall below the eyebrows, may not interfere with the wear of all headgear, must lie neatly against the head, and not be visible underneath the front of the headgear

What is Medium Length hair?

hair length that does not extend beyond the lower edge of the collar (in all uniforms), and extends more than 1 inch from the scalp

Is Medium length hair required to be secured?

No, Medium hair may fall naturally in uniform, and is not required to be secured

What is Long Length hair?

hair length that extends beyond the lower edge of the collar

How must Long hair be secured?

Long hair will be neatly and inconspicuously fastened or pinned, except that bangs may be worn

Is Female hair Authorized to bulge or distort or make gaps in the headgear?

No; When headgear is worn, hair should not protrude at distinct angles from under the edges

What type of Hair Holding devices are Authorized for wear?

small plain scrunchies (elastic hair bands covered with material), barrettes, combs, pins, clips, rubber bands, and hair/head bands

What are Some examples of prohibited Hair Holding Devices?

conspicuous, excessive, or decorative

During PT is Long length hair authorized to be in a pony tail?

Yes; A single pony tail centered on the back of the head is authorized in physical fitness uniforms, except when considered a safety hazard. It is not required to be worn above the collar

What is the Authorized use of Cosmetics allowed for Females?

They must be applied modestly and conservatively, and that they complement both the Soldier's complexion and the uniform

Para 3-2 B 2 How must Males keep fingernails trimmed?

Males will keep nails trimmed so as not to extend beyond the fingertip unless medically required and are not authorized to wear nail polish

What is the Maximum Allowed Length of Fingernails for Females?

No longer than 1/4 of an inch as measured from tip of finger

What is the Authorized Color of Nail Polish while in Uniform?

Only Clear Nail Polish is Authorized in uniform or while in civilian clothes on duty

What are the types of tattoos or brands that are prejudicial to good order and discipline and therefore prohibited anywhere on a Soldier's body?

1. Extremist
2. Indecent
3. Sexist
4. Racist

What Jewelry is Authorized for wear while in uniform?

Soldiers may wear a wristwatch, a wrist religious or identification bracelet, and a total of two rings

Is a Wedding Set considered two rings?

No; a wedding set is considered one ring

What Identification bracelets are authorized?

medical alert bracelets, missing in action, prisoner of war, killed in action (black or silver color only), and religious bracelets similar in size and appearance to identification bracelets

1 What type of earrings are authorized for Females?

screw-on, clip-on, or post-type earrings in gold, silver, white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6 mm or 1⁄4 inch in diameter

What are considered Class C uniforms?

combat, utility, hospital duty, food service, physical fitness, field, or organizational

Are there any Restrictions for Females wearing earrings off duty?

No; except the earrings do not create or support ear gauging (enlarging the holes in the lobe)

Are Males Authorized to wear earrings off duty?

Yes, as long as the earrings do not create or support ear gauging

Army Sponsorship Program

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

-DA Form 5434
-Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

sponsors should be appointed within _________ calendar days after battalion or higher activity receives the da form 5434?

10

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

-grade equal to or higher than the incoming soldier
-same sex, marital status, and military career as the incoming soldier
-The sponsor should be familiar with the unit and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1.DA Form 5434.M
2.Welcome letter.
3.ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4.Reception.
5.Orientation.
6.Inprocessing.

What is Reactionary sponsorship?

Sponsor support offered to a soldier or civilian employee arriving at an installation without an assigned sponsor

What is DA Form 7274?

Sponsorship Program Survey

For Whom Sponsorship is Mandatory?

First-Term Soldiers

what form is completed by a soldier on arrival in evaluating the units sponsorship program?

Da Form 7274

At a minimum how many welcome letters should a new arrival receive?

- one from the battalion commander (officers) - or command sergeant major (enlisted) - one from the designated sponsor

Before the Newcomer Arrival What should happen?

-Keep the chain of command informed
-Provide follow-up information newcomer needs
-Greet and receive newcomer
-Advise newcomer of arrangements for initial reception

What are the Sponsor Responsibilities

-Arrange transportation
-Meet the newcomer
-Assist with in-processing- gets to ACS
-Set up appointments
-Introduce to Chain of Command
-Acquaint with unit

Participation

-Company level
-Soldiers private through COL
-Civilian employees through grade 15

Where should the sponsor check if he/she received a Da 5434 from the incoming soldier

The army Career Tracker

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What is S-Gate?

S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?

10 days unless the sponsorship is declined

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1.DA Form 5434.M
2.Welcome letter.
3.ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4.Reception.
5.Orientation.
6.Inprocessing.

What publication covers the Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What is S-Gate?

S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?

10 days unless the sponsorship is declined

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

DA Form 5434.M

Welcome letter

ACS Relocation Readiness Service's

Reception

Orientation

Inprocessing

Should there be a sponsorship for a soldier departing a unit?

yes

What Army regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

DA Form 5434 or electronically generated DA Form 5434-E

How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?

10 days unless the sponsorship is declined

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

the soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher than the incoming soldier - the sponsor should be the same sex as the incoming soldier

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

DA Form 5434

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

welcome letter

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

ACS relocation readiness services

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

reception

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

orientation

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

inprocessing

What AR covers the Total army Sponsorship?

AR 600-8-8

What is the Purpose of the Army Sponsorship Plan?

A system is provided to help commanders exercise their basic responsibility to assist Soldiers, civilian
employees, and families successfully relocate into and out of their commands. Sponsorship is a commander's program
in which commanders and individual sponsors are key to success

The Total Army Personnel System directs the sponsorship function to do what?

1. Assist Soldiers, civilian employees, and families during the reassignment process
2. assist families geographically seperated from the soldier or civilian employee sponsor becasue of duty requirements.
3. Improve unit or organizational cohesion and readiness by decreasing distractions that hamper personal performance and mission accomplishment
4. Support the Army's personnel life-cycle function of sustainment

Sponsorship standards:

Personnel will be advised to make known their sponsorship needs as part of the reassignment management
process.



Sponsors will be appointed as part of the strength management process for military personnel.

Standards are to forward DA Form 5434 received by higher echelons within 3 working days ofreceipt; to appoint sponsors, unless the Soldier declines, within 10 calendar days of receipt of DA Form 5434; and to
forward the sponsor welcome letter and information within 10 calendar days of appointment.

Sponsors will respond to correspondence within 10 working days of receipt.

How many days does a new unit have to contact soldier?

3 days to contact 10 days for welcome letter

How long do sponsors have to answer correspondence?

10 working days

What is the form requesting sponsorship?

DA 5434

What is the paper trail of the DA 5434?

Losing unit--MACOM--Gaining Unit--Supervisor

Who sends a welcome letter?

A welcome letter will be sent from the battalion commander, command sergeant major or commander or activity director to the incoming Soldier or civilian
employee within ten calendar days following receipt of DA Form 5434 by the battalion.

AND THE SPONSOR

ACS relocation readiness services include?

Moving classes, Welcome packets, orientation briefings

Explain reception in Sponsorship

The sponsor should coordinate a time to receive the new soldier upon arrival prior to arrival.

Explain orientation in sponsorship

The sponsor should introduce incomming soldier to the unit, take them to ACS and other informal orientation such as area familarization

Explain inprocessing in sponsorship

the sponsor does not improcess, only assists when needed

Who is required to participate in the sponsorship program?

E1 to O6 will at least be offered a sponsor upon arrival in the event of not having a sponsor prior to arrival. All first term soldiers are required to particiapte in the sponsorship program

Who is selected as a sponsor?

Only those individuals who can represent the gaining unit or activity in a positive manner will be
selected as sponsors

How are sponsors evaluated?

Feedback from new soldier, supervisors etc. Awards are also recommeded for exemplary service.

When will a sponsor be appointed?

Within 10 days of receipt of DA 5434

What criteria apply to selecting a sponsor?

A grade equal to or higher when practical.

Of the same gender, marital status, and military career field or occupational series

Familiar with the unit or activity and community

Not PCSing in the next 60 days or being replaced by the soldier.

Rules for sponsor:

Email welcome letter within 10 days.

Attempt to call incomming soldier
Answer coorespondence within 10 days
Remain a "sponsor" for as long as necessary
Act like a big brother/sister for first term soldiers

Rules for greeting a soldier:

Commander will send out military transportaion if needed AND available
Provide sponsor adaquate time to perform sponsorship duties
Provide incomming soldier with adaquate time to inprocess and avoid being placed on tdy/ftx or other duty

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

-DA Form 5434
-Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

sponsors should be appointed within _________ calendar days after battalion or higher activity receives the da form 5434?

10

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

-grade equal to or higher than the incoming soldier
-same sex, marital status, and military career as the incoming soldier
-The sponsor should be familiar with the unit and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1.DA Form 5434.M
2.Welcome letter.
3.ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4.Reception.
5.Orientation.
6.Inprocessing.

What is Reactionary sponsorship?

Sponsor support offered to a soldier or civilian employee arriving at an installation without an assigned sponsor

What is DA Form 7274?

Sponsorship Program Survey

For Whom Sponsorship is Mandatory?

First-Term Soldiers

what form is completed by a soldier on arrival in evaluating the units sponsorship program?

Da Form 7274

At a minimum how many welcome letters should a new arrival receive?

- one from the battalion commander (officers) - or command sergeant major (enlisted) - one from the designated sponsor

Before the Newcomer Arrival What should happen?

-Keep the chain of command informed
-Provide follow-up information newcomer needs
-Greet and receive newcomer
-Advise newcomer of arrangements for initial reception

What are the Sponsor Responsibilities

-Arrange transportation
-Meet the newcomer
-Assist with in-processing- gets to ACS
-Set up appointments
-Introduce to Chain of Command
-Acquaint with unit

Participation

-Company level
-Soldiers private through COL
-Civilian employees through grade 15

Where should the sponsor check if he/she received a Da 5434 from the incoming soldier

The army Career Tracker

What publication covers the Army Sponsorship Program

AR 600-8-8

What is the purpose of the Army Sponsorship Program?

the successful reception and integration of Soldiers and Families into their units, installations,

Sponsors will need to complete which DA form, and within how many days?

DA Form 5434, section 3

After initial in-processing, what type of assistance will the sponsor give?

a decreasing level based on the soldier's ability to function independently

In which appendix is the sponsor checklist found?

appendix C

How long will the soldier and sponsor be linked after arrival and integration?

up to 45 days

What are the soldier's responsibilities during the sponsorship process?

1. Complete section 1,2,4, and 5 of DA Form 5434
2. Reply to sponsor's communication
3. Inform BDE sponsorship coordinator is contact with sponsor has not been made within 120 days of arrival

Will will AIT soldiers initiate their DA Form 5434?

No later than the first week of their phase IV training

Which soldiers are in Tier 1?

AIT and Officer Basic Course graduates

Which soldiers are in Tier 2?

PVT - SSG
2LT - CPT
CW1 - CW2

Which soldiers are in Tier 3?

SFC - SGM

Which tier is not required but may request sponsorship?

Tier 3

Sponsorship Program ETP approval authority lies at which level of leadership?

The first general officer in the soldier's chain of command.

Long term military schools (more than 20 weeks) are required to provide what, in regards to Army Sponsorship?

1. Welcome letter
2. Sponsorship Information

**not required to provide a sponsor

What are the types of sponsorship?

1. Advanced arrival
2. Out-sponsorship
3. Reactionary Sponsorship

Which type of sponsorship is preferred?

Advanced arrival

Which type of sponsorship is provided by gaining command for unprogrammed arrivals?

Reactionary Sponsorship

How long should it take for a reactionary sponsor to be assigned?

Within 24 hours for first-term and junior soldiers

What are the duties of a reactionary sponsor?

The same as a normal sponsor

When should a sponsor be assigned to a permanent party soldier in ACT?

At least 120 days out from report date

When should a sponsor be assigned to a basic training soldier in ACT?

Within 5 calendar days of ACT notification

What are the requirements to be a RA sponsor?

1. equally in grade or higher
2. same gender, marital status, and career field
3. familiar with the unit
4. represent the unit in a positive manner

In regular army, the sponsor-soldier ratio should not exceed what?

1:5

An individual will be exempt from performing as a sponsor when he/she is...

1. being replaced by the inbound soldier
2. within 90 days of PCS
3. pending unfavorable actions
4. absent during the first 60 days
5. pending medical / physical evaluation board

What is the intent of the Army Reserve Sponsorship Program

to enhance unit readiness and RETENTION

What is the key responsibility of the CG, USARC

to designate a primary and alternate TASP manager

Army Reserves: who ensures the sponsorship process is initiated upon notification on a newly assigned solder?

the BDE/BN level commander

Army Reserves: who confirms new soldiers understand enlistment/reenlistment documents, and their TPU, military obligation, and ETS dates?

the unit Retention NCO

Army Reserve: who informs the commander on the status of the TASP?

the unit retention NCO

Army Reserve: who ensures the standards for sponsorship are established and adhered to within units of responsibility?

the senior command career counselor

What are the responsibilities of the Army Reserve Career Counsellor?

1. provide sponsor training upon request
2. ensure initial counseling requirements are completed
3. ensure appropriate documentation is completed within 30 days
4. informs leaders of the status of their sponsorship program

Army Reserves: what key responsibilities does the unit sponsorship coordinator have?

1. coordinates / manages the sponsorship program
2.

Army Reserves: what are the key responsibilities of the assigned sponsor?

1. contact the soldier prior to first battle assembly
2. establish a time/location at the reserve center to meet before formation
3. provide FRG any pertinent info
4. ensure the soldier completes in-processing
5. ensure meetings with CMD/1SG are scheduled & conducted

Army Reserves: which soldiers are required to participate in the TASP?

PVT - COL

**excluding soldiers completing AIT or other long-term schools

Army Reserves: how will a sponsor be selected?

1. duty-appointed by CMD
2. remain duty-appointed until no longer needed by the soldier - not to exceed 120 days
3. will act as a big brother/sister for first-term soldiers

Army Reserves: what are the requirements to serve as a sponsor?

1. equal in grade or higher
2. same gender, marital status, career field

Army Reserves: what would exempt someone from being a sponsor?

1. the person being replaced by the incoming soldier
2. within 60 days of PCS
3. pending administrative action
4. unavailable for 4 consecutive battle assemblies

National Guard: what happens with non-prior service soldiers?

they will be directly attached to their state's Recruit Sustainment Program until completion of Basic and AIT.

National Guard: what happens with prior service soldiers?

all prior service soldiers will report directly to their unit of assignment

National Guard: is the sponsorship program an important element the ARNG attrition management system?

yes

National Guard: who is responsible for overall implementation of the sponsorship program?

1. Commanders
2. CSM's
3. 1SG's
4. FLL's
5. Retention NCO's

National Guard: who appoints a soldier's sponsor?

1SG

National Guard: who should the sponsor be in relation to the soldier?

the soldier's first line supervisor

National Guard: what will sponsors use to ensure all sponsorship steps have been completed?

the ARNG sponsorship checklist

National Guard: what key things are noted in the ARNG sponsorship checklist

1. introduction of key personnel
2. explanation of unit history
3. equipment issue

National Guard: will the 1SG issue a sponsor to a soldier who has an extended leave of absence?

yes

National Guard: who is responsible for completion of initial sponsorship effort?

1SG

Sponsors to Tier 1 soldiers are expected to do what?

1. act as a big brother/sister
2. develop a sense of responsibility for fellow soldiers

Developing a sense of responsibility for fellow soldiers is intended to to what?

improve safety and reduce the likelihood and opportunity for sexual assault, misconduct, and suicide gestures

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What is S-Gate?

S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of Command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR websites and regulator information.

What DA form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands? and How soon after the DA Form is received should a sponsor be assigned?

1) DA Form 5434, 2) Within 10 days unless declined

What does block 5 on the DA Form 5434 M cover?

Family considerations

Who is responsible for the sponsorship program within a unit?

Senior NCO, 1SG or CSM

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

1) a grade equal or higher, 2) same gender, 3) be familiar with the unit or activity and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1) DA Form 5434 M, 2) Welcome letter, 3) ACS Relocation Readiness Services, 4) Reception, 5) Orientation, 6) In processing.

Army Family Advocacy Program (FAP)

What AR covers Army Family Advocacy Program?

AR 608-18

What does Section 1 ofChapter 3 of AR 608-18 cover?

Section 1: Prevention of Spouse and Child Abuse ( Chapter 3: Response to Spouse and Child Abuse)

What is the purpose of prevention?

The prevention program is designed to create community and command
awareness of abuse, provide information of existing services, and provide specific educational programs

What does Prevention include?

includes awareness, education, and intervention in high-risk situations

What is Primary Prevention?

is community-based, promotes wellness for everyone, and commits resources to enhance
healthy individual, couple, and Family functioning.

creates a climate of awareness that encourages voluntary participation. Stress and anger
management classes, New Parent Support Programs (NPSP), couples-communication groups, parent-child groups, marital enrichment programs, home visiting programs, childcare opportunities, parent education classes, and Family wellness programs

What is Secondary prevention?

refers to those activities and services offered on a voluntary basis to individuals, couples,
or Families considered to be "at risk" because of their current life situation to address early symptoms of stress and crisis before they escalate into violent behavior

What is Tertiary prevention?

means assessment, intervention, and treatment services after an allegation has been made

Who manages Primary and Secondary Prevention?

ACS FAP prevention staff

Who manages tertiary prevention?

a medical treatment facility (MTF)

What form is used when referred to FAP?

DA Form 7517 (DD-FM&P (W1738))

Explain the Community education program in regards to FAP:

informs the military community of the extent and nature of spouse
and child abuse and focuses awareness of Family violence, including how to report it and what services are available

The purpose is to promote community
support and encourage early referral

Explain the Commander education program in regards to FAP:

The nature of spouse and child abuse and how to prevent it.
(2) FAP policies and procedures.
(3) Available FAP services and resources.
(4) Command responsibilities for identification, reporting, and coordination with the CRC.
(5) Information on FAP prevention services.
(6) Mandatory briefing requirements for unit commanders and senior enlisted advisers within 45 days after appointment to a command position.

Explain the Troop education program in regards to FAP:

annual troop education by FAP personnel for all Soldiers on the Family dynamics of spouse and child abuse, the availability of prevention and treatment services, and the Army's policies regarding Family violence

Education for professionals program.

is program provides semiannual education for personnel who work with
children (for example, those working in CYS and schools) to ensure that they are aware of the seriousness of child
abuse, the causes and effects of child abuse, the identification of child abuse, and the reporting responsibilities of child
abuse.

Parent education and support

arent education and support programs develop skills in physical care, protection,
supervision and nurturing appropriate to a child's age and stage of development.

Parent education program

This program involves education that is designed to enhance parenting and child
management skills.

New-parent support program

Primary prevention (NPSP-Standard) targets all Families with children 3 years of age and younger. (3-6 month cycles) Secondary prevention (NPSP-Plus) targets parents at moderate to high risk
Respite care

Safety education programs

The first target group is composed of
parents, teachers, caregivers, and all concerned adults in the community. This audience needs information about how to protect children and how to listen to and talk with children about child abuse prevention.

Spouse abuse prevention programs.

Strengthening and stabilizing intimate relationships is one approach to preventing marital distress and spouse abuse. The goals of spouse abuse prevention programs are to enhance and sustain communication, decision-making, and conflict-resolution skills and to clarify perceptions within the relationship

Victim advocacy services program

Provides comprehensive assistance and support to victims of spouse abuse, including crisis intervention, assistance in securing medical treatment for injuries, information on legal rights and proceedings, and referral to military and civilian shelters and other resources available to victims

What does Section 2 ofChapter 3 of AR 608-18 cover?

Reporting of Spouse and Child Abuse Incidents

What is mandated each installation will do?

Each installation will establish a telephone reporting system for handling all reports of spouse and child abuse

Where should most installations send these phone calls?

In most instances, the central location for receiving reports of abuse should be the MTF emergency room or MP desk,

What is the minimum requirement for an installation?

A report point of contact available to on and off post military members 24 hours a day

Are all service members compelled to report an incident?

No, they are encourage though as the information is received and annonmous reporting is an option as well as confidentiality

Who is required to report an incident?

All installation law enforcement personnel, physicians, nurses, social workers, school personnel, FAP and CYS
personnel, psychologists, and other medical personnel will as soon as the information is received
Commanders will report allegations of abuse involving their Soldiers

When are commanders informed of an incident?

within 24 hours of receipt by the CRC chairperson

What is included in the report given to the commander?

, the type of abuse, the alleged abuser, the case manager, and the date and
time of the next CRC meeting at which the case will be reviewed.

What civilian reports are introduced into the FAP?

All state reports regarding the soldier and family.

Family Advocacy Program Mission

enhance AF readiness by promoting family and community health, as well as resiliency. The mission includes promoting family health, welfare and morale by preventing cases of maltreatment.

Family Advocacy Program components

Maltreatment Intervention
Prevention Services

AF Directive

AF Directive form 40-301

Installation Levels

Installation CC is responsible for operations and effectiveness of the installation FAP

Family Advocacy Committee (FAC)

Develops, publishes, and maintains installation directives which will include policy statements

Mental Health Tech Responsibilites while in FAP

Screening outpatient records for FAP history
Logging cases
Establishing FAP records

Process for FAP Maltreatment Program

Referall
Intake
Assessment
Case Management
Maltreatment Intervention

Maltreatment 3 Categories

Victims
Alleged Offender
Child Sexual Abuse

Situations where no FAP record is opened

Intra-Familial abuse of parents by their own children
Elder abuse except if victim is unable to care for self
Child sexual activity among peers

2 Main teams that make up FAP-IMT

Central Registry Board (CRB)
Clinical Case Staffing (CCS)

CRB

Is a multi-disciplinary team that makes administrative determinations for suspected family maltreatment meeting DoD/AF definitions

Purpose of CRB

Is to decide if each referral of suspected family maltreatment meets the AF criteria of family maltreatment

CRB Meetings

They are held in the wing headquarters

CRB Minutes

minutes of the CRB will be generated within 30 days

Child Sexual Maltreatment Response Team (CSMRT)

CSMRT has 72 hours to investigate allegations

High Risk for Violence Response Team (HRVRT)

HRVRT manages potentially dangerous situation involving FAP clients and/or FAP staff such

Maltreatment Records

Records must be secured by double-lock

FAP maltreatment record

will be opened with a referral when reasonable suspicion exists that maltreatment has occured in AD family

Maltreatment Records

maltreatment records file identified by the sponsor's name

Maltreatment Records Administration

DD Form 2005 has the Privacy Act Statement

Data Collection Instruments

child/spouse maltreatment incident report, produced by FASOR

Chronological Documentation

SF 600 chronological record of medical care, in chronological order

FAP Intervention

All prevention program intervations will be provided using evidence-based programs and approaches for supporting protective factors as determined by FAP

FAP Prevention

Primary purpose of the FA Prevention Program is to enhance mission readiness by preventing the occurance of child and spouse maltreatment

FAOM

FA Outreach Manager

FAIS

FA Intervention Specialist where no FOAM is assigned

NPSP

New parent support program

FAST

Family Advocacy Strength-Based Training staff

Prevention Programs services

Stress Management
Parenting Skills
Awareness campains such as child abuse prevention month
Anger management

NPSP Program

Is a home-based prevention program for military families

NPSP Principle Focus

Principle focus of the NPSP is to identify new parents at risk for maltreatment
Home visits should be scheduled for two hours

NPSP Home Visits Include

Updated assessment of the home environment
safety issues
family stresses
family interventions
family health issues
the need for further intervention

Family Advocacy Strength Based (FAST)

FAST clients must be eligible beneficiaries, with priority to active duty memebers and their families
The family does not have an open maltreatment record and is not eligible for NPSP

FAST Services

serivces will be documented in the FAST services record

What does the acronym FAP stand for?

Family Advocacy Program.

Explain the Family Advocacy Program.

It is dedicated to domestic and child abuse prevention, education, prompt to reporting investigations, intervention, and treatment. Held Soldiers and Families recognize and meet the unique challenges of military lifestyles. Services include seminars, workshops, counseling, and intervention to help strengthen Army Families, enhance resiliency and relationship skills, and improve quality of life.

What four areas does FAP program focus on?

Personal Safety; self sufficiency; personal preparedness; and community cohesion

Name two FAP resources.

EFMP, New Parent Support, victimismo Advocacy Services Program

What regulation covers FAP?

AR 608-1

JKO SEJPME-US002-22

Which headquarters level typically focuses assessment on answering the question "Are we doing things right?"
*NOT* Operational

Which of the following statements best describes the key aspects of an assessment process observation table?
* Source criteria, collection means, and commander/staff interface venues

Which of the following key roles enrich the assessment process and provides collaboration between the military and nongovernmental agencies?
* Stakeholder Involvement

Which headquarters level looks more broadly at assessment within their area of responsibility and often concentrates assessment efforts on determining whether progress has been made toward accomplishing the mission?
* theater strategic

Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)?
* straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE?
* Staff assessments products do not necessarily have to support the commander's requirements, as long as the products provide meaningful information.

Which assessment level involves asking the question "are we doing the right thing?"

Operational environment

Which of the following describes how assessments deepen the understanding of the operational environment (OE)

All of these describe how assessments deepen the understanding of the OE

Which of the following describes the role of the measure of performance (MOP) in conducting assessments?

Straight forward and is drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

The basis for establishing an assessment includes all of the following except?

Enabling an accurate visualization of past success as a template for all future missions

The tendency to over-engineer staff assessment products is a challenge that occurs within which of the following roles?

Staff

The J2 plays an important role in assessment because _____.

They provide much of the information for the operational environment (OE) assessment

What is the purpose of color-coding approach used in the staff assessment product? (Select all that apply)

1. Track progress over time
2. Provide understanding for the operational commander and common framework to allow sharing and discussion among commanders

Which of the following is an example of a measure of effectiveness (MOE) indicator?

forces or civilians injured

Which of the following identifies assessment criteria that are determined during planning and require periodic review and refinement?

measures of performance (MOP) and measures of effectiveness (MOE)

What important constraints must the staff consider in order to craft the best assessment products for the commander

The staff must understand how the commander wants to get the information, and must ensure clear connections between the objectives and the metrics they are using.

Which headquarters level looks more broadly at assessment within their area of responsibility and often concentrates assessment efforts on determining whether progress has been made toward accomplishing the mission?

theater strategic

In addition to helping deepen the understanding of the operational environment (OE), what else serves as the basis for assessment?

Supports joint force progress towards accomplishing the mission, MOP and MOE are determined during planning, and indicators require periodic review and refinement or change

The tendency to over-engineer assessment products is a challenge that occurs within which of the following roles?

staff

Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)?

straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

Which headquarters level typically focuses assessment on answering the question "Are we doing things right?"

tactical

What is the purpose of the color-coding approach used in staff assessment products (i.e., green - on plan, amber - off plan but okay, etc.)? (Select all that apply.)

- these provide understanding for the operational commander and a common framework to allow sharing and discussion among commanders

- these allow tracking over time of progress

In what way does the J2 play an important role in assessments?

They provide much of the information for assessments via the J2/Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC)

JKO USSOUTHCOM Joint Task Force (JTF) Lifecycle Plan and Form

Because of the unique nature and visibility these task forces may be established as a separate task force and work directly for the JTF commander or be attached to the Joint Special Operations Task Force. (Concept and Example, Page 24)

Joint CMO Task Force and Joint PSYOPS Task Force (correct)

What is the event horizon for current operations? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 11)

Inside of 24 hours (correct)

In what phase is the operations order developed once a course of action is approved? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 8)

NOT
Strategic guidance phase

The early insertion of joint enablers provides key planning and communications capacity. (Operational Environment, Page 3)

True (correct)

What publication addresses the tasks associated with forming a joint task force? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 2)

Universal Joint Task List (correct)

Which one of the following members of the Command Group is usually chosen based on mission requirements and is usually NOT of the same service as the joint task force commander? (Forming the Joint Task Force: Doctrine and Tasks, Page 13)

NOT
Command Senior Enlisted Leader

The establishing authority responsibilities of the combatant command when setting up a JTF focus on _____________________. (Forming the Joint Task Force: Doctrine and Tasks, Page 12)

providing and facilitating (correct)

The phases of the JTF Lifecycle are fluid, overlapping and some may continue throughout the entire life of the JTF. (Objectives and Suggested Readings, Page 3)

False (correct)

The staff processes for contingency and crisis action planning are the same.

True (correct)

Combatant commands operate as the lead when directing military or humanitarian assistance operations. (Concept and Example, Page 4)

False (correct)

Which one of the following best describes contingency planning? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 5)

Planning done in anticipation of a potential crisis outside of crisis conditions (correct)

An earthquake devastates an area within the SOUTHCOM area or responsibility creating an humanitarian crisis. Due to the degree of destruction the decision is made to stand up a JTF to facilitate relief activities. At this point what should be the focus of SOUTHCOM? (Concept and Example, Page 12)

NOT
Establishing relationships with host nation and multinational partners through the embassy and Department of State

Which publication contains the tasks for both the combatant command and the joint task force? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 2)

NOT
CJCS Manual 3500.05A

In the JTF organization, what is the time horizon of future planning? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 11)

NOT
Activities within 24 hours

Which one of the following best describes the function of the Joint Enabling Capabilities Command ? (Concept and Example, Page 2)

NOT
Engages in liaison activities between to enable collaboration tasks between the JTF and multinational and intergovernmental organizations

What member of the command group is responsible for establishing and managing staff processes and procedures that support the command's decision making process? (Forming the Joint Task Force: Doctrine and Tasks, Page 13)

NOT
Command Senior Enlisted Advisor

What type of planning can be best understood as branches of an overarching global or theatre campaign plan? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 5)

NOT
Crisis action planning

Military interventions have largely been undertake to _______. (Operational Environment, Page 2)

achieve our enduring stability goals (correct)

JKO USSOUTHCOM Annual Security Awareness (CUI)

Who does a person that has knowledge of a loss or possible compromise of classified information report to and how soon?

The Security Hotline at 305-437-2345 or the Information Security Office at 305-437-1175 , immediately.

The wearing of a USSOUTHCOM security badge implies "need to know" regarding access to classified information.

False

Cover sheets are not required when handling Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).

False

It is authorized to have classified discussions in the HQ building hallways and/or restrooms, as long as the person you are speaking to has the proper clearance and a need to know.

False

When material is derivatively classified based on "multiple sources," the derivative classifier shall compile a list of the sources used. This list shall be included in, or attached to the derivative document.

True

You received an email on NIPRNET that you believe may contain classified information. You should?

Immediately contact the Security Hotline at (305) 437-2345 or the Information Security Office at (305) 437-1175.

Identify the correct employee type or access.

Contractor (3), (5) TS/SCI Access

Compromise of classified information is defined as:

The unauthorized disclosure of classified information.

When transporting classified materials within the HQ building, which of the following is required?

A classified document cover sheet over the document and placed in a folder or envelope ensuring the classification level of the document is not exposed during transit.

Threats to classified and unclassified government assets include:

All of the provided choices are correct.

What classification level should be applied to information that could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to the national security?

Confidential

If you suspect that information has been over-classified, who must you contact to challenge the classification?

Contact the Original Classification Authority (OCA) of the information.

Choose the correct overall classification for the document.

SECRET/NOFORN

JKO USSOUTHCOM Emergency Response and Active Shooter Preparedness

1) The person identified in the Installation Emergency Management plan who has overall authority and responsibility for the management of an incident operation is the:

nstallation Emergency Manager
Incident Response Commander (correct)
Evacuation Assistant
Chief of Police

Emergencies that may occur include:

Active Shooter (correct)
Fire (correct)
Zika virus epidemic
Catastrophic Flu
Bomb Threat (correct)

In an active shooter situation, it is recommended that personnel follow the three basic courses of action listed below. Which is the correct order?

Run - Fight - Hide
Run - Hide - Fight (correct)
Fight - Run - Hide
Hide - Run - Fight

) An active shooter is an individual or group of individuals actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

True (correct)
False

In the event of an emergency, personnel may be required to evacuate the SC HQ building or shelter-in-place, but in either case emergency assistance must be requested by dialing 9-911.

True (correct)
False

JKO USSOCOM Post-Deployment Intelligence Oversight Course

USSOCOM may collect and retain information on U.S. persons while determining if the information may be retained permanently for up to:

180 days (wrong)
60 days (wrong)

Which of the following describe the independent oversight of intelligence activities within the command?

Inspector General

The IO program applies to the following personnel:

All staff organizations that collect, process, retain, or disseminate intelligence information. (wrong)

After 9/11, collection of information on U.S. persons was relaxed for DOD for prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism regardless of applicability of command mission.

False.

USSOCOM Manual 381-10 applies to:

All intelligence components assigned to Joint Special Operations Command (wrong)

If deployed, all questionable IO activity should be reported to:

Your Special Operations Judge Advocate (wrong)

The Special Operations Judge Advocate is responsible for:

Oversight of USSOCOM IO program and reporting violations. (wrong)

The IO program was established to: (check all that apply)

Ensure protection of the rights of U.S. persons
Regulate DOD intelligence activities

JKO USSOCOM Intelligence Oversight Course (FOUO)

SOCOM primary mission

primary mission is to organize, train, and equip special operations forces (SOF) and provides those forces to the Geographic Combatant Commanders under whose operational control they serve

what are the seven sub-components to SOCOM

1. USASOC
2. NSWC
3. AFSOC
4. MARSOC
5. JSOC
6. JSOU
7. SOC-JC

What are the responsibilities of the Commander, USSOCOM

to organize, train, and equip SOF for current and future challenges and:
(1) Serve as the SOF joint force provider.
(2) Integrate and coordinate DOD MISO capabilities to enhance interoperability and support US Strategic Command's IO responsibilities and other CCDRs' MISO planning and execution.
(3) Synchronize planning for global operations against terrorist networks in coordination with other CCDRs, the Services, and as directed, appropriate USG departments and agencies.
(4) Train SO force, including developing recommendations to the CJCS regarding strategy, doctrine, tactics, techniques, and procedures for the joint employment of SOF

SOCOM additional missions

1. develops special operations strategy, doctrine, and procedures for the use of SOF and also develops and procures specialized, SOF-unique equipment for its assigned forces
2. the lead COCOM for synchronizing DOD planning against terrorists and their networks on a global basis (and executive with orders from POTUS or SecDef)

what is the CDRUSSOCOM

an FCC who exercises COCOM of all assigned AC [Active Component] and mobilized RC [Reserve Component] SOF minus US Army Reserve CA and MISO [Military Information Support Operations] forces

US Army SOC assets

Green Berets; Rangers; Civil Affairs, and Military Information Support Operations (MISO)

Naval Special Warfare Command assets

- SEAL teams that conduct operations in both maritime and ground environments
- SEAL Delivery Vehicle (SDV) teams—specialized SEALs that pilot small submersible vehicles that can deliver SEALs to their area of operations
- Special Boat Teams that can deliver SEALs from ship to shore as well as operate in the littorals and rivers

AFSOC assets

- provides specialized fixed and rotary wing support to USSOCOM units
- Combat Controllers, Pararescue Jumpers, Special Operations Weather Teams, and Tactical Air Control Parties (TACPs)

Marine Special Operations Command

- newest subcomponent
- three Marine Special Operations Battalions
- a Marine Special Operations Support Group
- a Marine Special Operations Intelligence Battalion
- Marine Special Operations School.

Joint Special Operations Command capabilities

1. JSOC is a sub unified command charged with studying special operations requirements and techniques to ensure interoperability and equipment standardization
2. plans and conducts special operations exercises and training and develops joint special operations tactics
3. Press reports suggest JSOC is home to USSOCOM's national mission forces which reportedly conduct highly sensitive combat and supporting operations against terrorists on a world-wide basis.

Joint Special Operations University mission

Educate Special Operations Forces executive, senior, and intermediate leaders and selected other national and international security decision-makers, both military and civilian, through teaching, research, and outreach in the science and art of Joint Special Operations

Special Operations Command - Joint Capabilities mission

to train conventional and special operations force commanders and their staffs in the employment of Special Operations Forces focusing on the full integration of SOF and the conventional forces in both planning and execution to enhance warfighting readiness.

USSOCOMs comparative advantage

three pillars: 1) persistent engagement, 2) enabling partners, and 3) discreet action

SOF core activities

1. direct action
2. special recon
3. unconventional warefare
4. foreign internal defense
5. civil affairs ops
6. military information support ops
7. counter-proliferation of WMD
8. security force assistance
9. hostage rescue and recovery
10. foreign humanitarian assistance
11. counterterrorism
12. counterinsurgency

direct action

Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions employing specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets

special recon

Actions conducted in sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance

unconventional warefare

Actions to enable a resistance movement or insurgency to coerce, disrupt, or overthrow a government or occupying power

foreign internal defense

Activities that support an HN's internal defense and development (IDAD) strategy and program designed to protect against subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, and other threats to their internal security, and stability, and legitimacy

civil affairs ops (CAO)

CAO enhance the relationship between military forces and civilian authorities in localities where military forces are present

counterterrorism

Actions taken directly against terrorist networks and indirectly to influence and render global and regional environments inhospitable to terrorist networks

military information support operations (MISO)

Counter-proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction

Activities to support USG efforts to curtail the conceptualization, development, possession, proliferation, use, and effects of weapons of mass destruction (WMD), related expertise, materials, technologies, and means of delivery by state and non-state actors

security force assistant

Activities based on organizing, training, equipping, rebuilding, and advising various components of Foreign Security Forces

counterinsurgency

The blend of civilian and military efforts designed to end insurgent violence and facilitate a return to peaceful political processes.n

hostage rescue and recovery

Offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorist threats and incidents, including recapture of U.S. facilities, installations, and sensitive material in overseas areas

foreign humanitarian assistance

The range of DOD humanitarian activities conducted outside the US and its territories to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation

JKO USINDOPACOM Intelligence Oversight Training

To whom can I report a violation?

All the above

What groups of personnel performing intel-related activities could collect, analyze, process, retain, or disseminate information on US persons?

Military, Government Civilians, Contractors

What two goals does IO try to balance?

Protect national security.
Protect individual constitutional rights.

What is the primary DoD publication covering IO? [Remediation Accessed :N]

DODD 4715.12 (wrong)

IO applies to all military, government, and contractor personnel in organizations performing intelligence or intelligence related activities that collect, analyze, process, retain or disseminate information on U.S. persons.

True

A person currently in the U.S. under a travel visa is considered a U.S. person under IO.

False.

What document governs United States Intelligence activities throughout government, ensuring the interests of national security are protected while maintaining the Constitutional rights of all U.S. persons?

EO12334 (wrong)
EO10450 (wrong)
EO10555

Under which procedure in DODD 5240.1-R is it legal for JPRA to retain information collected on U.S. persons?

Procedure 3

DoD intelligence components are authorized to cooperate with law enforcement under certain circumstances.

True

Why does JPRA need to have an IO program?

JPRA is an intelligence organization. X

JKO USPACOM Theater Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (T-JFMCC)

Knowledge management integrates tacit and explicit knowledge making it available to higher authority and subordinates to facilitate PACFLT operational planning teams (OPT).

TRUE

What mission area would include activities such as Hostile and Uncertain Non-combatant Evacuation Operations?

OFENSIVE AND DEFENSIVE OPERATIONS

Commander U.S. Pacific Command delegates OPCON of U.S. Navy forces assigned to PACOM to COMPACFLT as the Navy Component Commander.

TRUE

What is the function of the Maritime Operations staff?

EMPLOY THE FORCE

What command, along with PACFLT, shares responsibility for preparing the force based on Title 10 requirements?

US FLEET FORCES COMMAND

The Maritime Operations Center is part of a Navy-wide, top-down effort focused on defining and developing operational level headquarters around the globe. What PACFLT organization supports this effort?

MARITIME HEADQUARTERS

A maritime headquarters must balance operational joint force activity and ______________.

OPERATIONAL CONTROL (OPCON)

What are the four main centers of the T-JFMCC MOC?

LOGISTICS READINESS CENTER (LRC)

NAVY COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM COORDINATION CENTER (NCCC)

FLEET COMMAND CENTER (FCC)

MARITIME INTELLIGENCE OPERATIONS CENTER - PACIFIC (MIOC-P)

Chapter 6 of Title 10 addresses the specific laws as they apply to _______________.

THE U.S. NAVY AND MARINE CORPS

Which two of the following statements about PACFLT are true?

AS NCC, PACFLT HAS OPCON AND PROVIDES ASSIGNED FORCES TO CDR USPACOM

AS T-LFMCC, PACFLT HAS TACON AND EMPLOYS FORCES ASSIGNED BY CDR USPACOM

Maritime Operations Center (MOC) posture flexes in response to the nature of world crises. What is the normal and routine MOC posture?

LEVEL 0

What is a distinct aspect of the Maritime Operations Center (MOC) functionality?

THE MOC LACKS INTERNAL LINES OF COMMAND RELYING ON CROSS-FUCTIONAL PROCESSES FOR ORGANIZATIONAL EFFECTIVENESS

What knowledge management tool consolidates Higher Headquarters (HHQ) to Strike Group and Amphibious Readiness Group (ARG) tactical, operational and selective administrative information in one central SIPRNet location?

COLLABORATION AT SEA(CAS)

What senior leadership position is responsible for establishing and managing staff processes and procedures at PACFLT?

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR AND DIRECTOR OF STAFF

Which two of the following Logistics Readiness Center responsibilities support the Direct phase of the Commander's Decision cycle?

PROMULGATE LOGISTICS CONOPS

ANNEX D

What MOC tasks are related to the recognized decision-making process?

Plan, direct, monitor, assess, and communicate

What N-code billet functions as the Maritime Planning Group Director?

N5 Director for Plans and Policy

What is the mission of the Theater-Joint Force Maritime Component Commander?

EXERCISE TACON OVER OTHER MILITARY CAPABILITIES AND FORECES MADE AVAILABLE FOR TASKING

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

OFFENSIVE AND DEFENSIVEOPERATIONS

What is knowledge management?

A PROCESS THAT TURNS RELEVANT INFORMATION AND DATA INTO DECISION-QUALITY KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING

A maritime headquarters must balance operational joint force activity and

OPERATIONAL CONTROL (OPCON)

The three basic functions of PACFLT as an operational level of war headquarters are to provide the force, prepare the force and assign forces

What is the event horizon during Normal and Routine operations?

Greater than 120 days

The three basic functions of PACFLT as an operational level of war headquarters are to provide the force, prepare the force and assign forces

False

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

Offensive and Defensive operations

What cross-functional decision making entity executes Plans Management Functions across three planning event horizons?

Maritime Planning Group

Which two of the following statements underscore the importance of PACFLT knowledge management?

Knowledge management integrates tacit and explicit knowledge making it available to higher authority and subordinates to facilitate PACFLT operational planning teams (OPT)

Knowledge management supports shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making

Knowledge management contributes to organizing information required for enterprise situational awareness and the PACFLT Maritime Operations Center objective of decentralized decision making and execution

At PACFLT, what senior leadership position is responsible for accomplishing the main functions of operational planning, combat operations, Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), air and sea mobility, and operational sustainability?

DIRECTOR OF MARITIME OPERATIONS CENTER

Knowledge management enhances decision-making by supporting shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making.

TRUE

The Maritime Intelligence Operations Center-Pacific (MIOC-P) connects with a number of cells that support the activities of the MIOC-P. Which one of the following supporting cells serves as the commander's common operating picture database manager for red and white tracks?

Watch Cell

Which of the following is defined as articulated knowledge as contained in documented databases, reports, manuals and expressed and recorded as words, numbers, codes, and mathematical and scientific formulae?

Explicit knowledge

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

Providing the force

Preparing the force

Contrary to its name, the Maritime Planning Group does no actual planning

TRUE

Which two of the following describe the two fleet management mission types?

PREPARING THE FORCE

PROVIDING THE FORCE

An operational maritime command and its associated support infrastructure are collectively known as a _____________________________.

MARITIME OPERATIONS CENTER

Generally the difference between N-codes and MOC centers is that the N-codes support Fleet Management and the MOC centers support maritime operations.

TRUE

The T-JFMCC MOC transitions to the N-Code Directorate structure when supporting contingency and crisis operations

false

What is COMPACFLT's mission as the Navy Component Commander?

provide interoperable, trained, and combat ready naval forces

Which two of the following functions are performed by the Maritime HQ Staff?

Tacit knowledge

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

Theater Security Cooperation and Phase 0 Operations

Which two of the following statements underscore the importance of PACFLT knowledge management?

Knowledge management contributes to organizing information required for enterprise situational awareness and the PACFLT Maritime Operations Center objective of decentralized decision making and execution

Knowledge management supports shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making

During normal and routine operations how often does the Maritime Planning Group meet?

monthly

What MOC center is required to attain, maintain, and share operational situational awareness?

Fleet Command Center (FCC)

An operational maritime command and its associated support infrastructure are collectively known as a _____________________________.

Maritime Headquarters

What knowledge management tool provides community spaces and collaborative tools available to the DOD and mission partners in order to leverage information to effectively plan, train and respond to meet their business requirements and mission objectives?

All Partners Access Network (APAN)

Knowledge management integrates tacit and explicit knowledge making it available to higher authority and subordinates to facilitate PACFLT operational planning teams (OPT).

False

Which two of the following statements underscore the importance of PACFLT knowledge management?

Knowledge management contributes to organizing information required for enterprise situational awareness and the PACFLT Maritime Operations Center objective of decentralized decision making and execution

Knowledge management supports shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making

What mission area would include activities such as Hostile and Uncertain Non-combatant Evacuation Operations?

Offensive and Defensive Operations

The MOC lacks internal lines of command relying on cross-functional processes for organizational effectiveness

What is a distinct aspect of the Maritime Operations Center (MOC) functionality?

Level 0

Maritime Operations Center (MOC) posture flexes in response to the nature of world crises. What is the normal and routine MOC posture?

True

Staff planning horizons are dependent on the amount of time the MOC staff must look into the future, regardless of whether it is normal and routine, contingency, or crisis operations.

- Theater Strategic Communications Working Group (correct)
- Commander's Action Group

Which two of the following groups ensure strategic communication advice to the Maritime Planning Group that is aligned with PACOM's?

Sustainment and Services Cell

What significant Logistics Readiness Center cells' purpose is to plan and direct logistics operations for all classes of supply in the PACOM AOR?

- As T-JFMCC, PACFLT has TACON and employs forces assigned by CDR USPACOM
- As NCC, PACFLT has OPCON and provides assigned forces to CDR USPACOM

Which two of the following statements about PACFLT are true?

Operational Control (OPCON)

A maritime headquarters must balance operational joint force activity and ______________.

Employ the force

What is the function of the Maritime Operations staff?

Explicit knowledge

Which of the following is defined as articulated knowledge as contained in documented databases, reports, manuals and expressed and recorded as words, numbers, codes, and mathematical and scientific formulae?

Executive Director and Director of Staff

What senior leadership position is responsible for establishing and managing staff processes and procedures at PACFLT?

All Partners Access Network (APAN)

What knowledge management tool provides community spaces and collaborative tools available to the DOD and mission partners in order to leverage information to effectively plan, train and respond to meet their business requirements and mission objectives?

Provide interoperable, trained, and combat-ready naval forces

What is COMPACFLT's mission as the Navy Component Commander?

Offensive and Defensive Operations

What mission area would include activities such as Hostile and Uncertain Non-combatant Evacuation Operations?

U.S. Fleet Forces Command

What command, along with PACFLT, shares responsibility for preparing the force based on Title 10 requirements?

Maritime Headquarters

The Maritime Operations Center is part of a Navy-wide, top-down effort focused on defining and developing operational level headquarters around the globe. What PACFLT organization supports this effort?

Fleet Command Center (FCC) (correct)
Navy Communications System Coordination Center (NCCC)
Maritime Intelligence Operations Center - Pacific (MIOC-P)
Logistics Readiness Center (LRC)

What are the four main centers of the T-JFMCC MOC?

False

The T-JFMCC MOC transitions to the N-Code Directorate structure when supporting contingency and crisis operations.

Chapter 6 of Title 10

Which part of the U.S. Code establishes the authority of Combatant Commanders over assigned forces?

True

Knowledge management enhances decision-making by supporting shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making.

X Offensive and Defensive operations

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

A process that turns relevant information and data into decision-quality knowledge and understanding

What is knowledge management?

X U.S. Pacific Command

What command, along with PACFLT, shares responsibility for preparing the force based on Title 10 requirements?

Annex D
Promulgate logistics CONOPS

Which two of the following Logistics Readiness Center responsibilities support the Direct phase of the Commander's Decision cycle?

Director of the Maritime Operations Center

At PACFLT, what senior leadership position is responsible for accomplishing the main functions of operational planning, combat operations, Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), air and sea mobility, and operational sustainability?

Employ the force

What is the function of the Maritime Operations staff?

X Maritime Operations Center

An operational maritime command and its associated support infrastructure are collectively known as a _____________________________.

All Partners Access Network (APAN)

What knowledge management tool provides community spaces and collaborative tools available to the DOD and mission partners in order to leverage information to effectively plan, train and respond to meet their business requirements and mission objectives?

- The primary operational functions of the HQ are organizationally separated from the administrative, support, and fleet management functions of the staff
- A cross-function structure is overlaid on the traditional N-code structure, creating a network of people, processes, and functions
- Cross-functional boards, centers, cells, and working groups are managed via a battle rhythm (BR) that aligns with the Commander's decision cycle

What are the three ways the Maritime Operations Center construct adds to the traditional N-codes staff structure and processes?

Planning capacity

During times of contingency and crisis operations the Maritime Planning Group expands to provide additional ____________________________.

True

Commander U.S. Pacific Command delegates OPCON of U.S. Navy forces assigned to PACOM to COMPACFLT as the Navy Component Commander.

Exercise TACON over other military capabilities and forces made available for tasking

What is the mission of the Theater-Joint Force Maritime Component Commander?

JKO Basic Antennas Overview

hat is wave propagation?

Transmission of energy by electromagnetic radiation

What are the two electromagnetic fields associated with every antenna?

Induction and radiation fields

Basic antenna systems are composed of what two fields?

Electric and magnetic

What is electromagnetic radiation?

Radiation associated with periodically varying electric and magnetic fields

Electrical field exists around all _______________.

Electrically charged objects

In an electrical field lines travel from...

positive to negative

An electrical field is generated by ___________of antenna

capacitive action

In an electrical field lines connect....

at a right angle

An induction field continually...

expands and contracts

What type of combined field doesn't exist apart from the antenna?

Induction field

The direction of the magnetic field is determined by....

the direction of the current flow

Which field is represented by lines forming closed loops around a current-carrying conductor?

Magnetic (H) field

Which combined field is the action of the expanding and collapsing of the induction field causes radiation to be radiation to be released?

Radiation field

What are the two types of polarization?

Vertical and horizontal

Which type of polarization has an E field perpendicular to the Earth's surface?

Vertical

Which type of polarization is ideal for antennas at higher elevation?

Horizontal

Which type of polarization has an E field parallel to the Earth's surface?

Horizontal

Which type of polarization has the greater signal strength along the Earth's surface?

Vertical

Which polarization has the advantage of simple antenna?

Vertical

Which polarization has the less loss in dense areas?

Horizontal

Which polarization is affected less by reflection?

Vertical

Which polarization has the stronger receiver signal?

Vertical

Which polarization is the less likely to be affected by man-made interference?

Horizontal

Waves, light waves, radio waves, etc. are all types of ...

Electromagnetic energy

Radio waves have a shape that is similar to?

A sine wave

Electromagnetic waves travel

at the speed of light

What can likely slow down an electromagnetic wave?

Atmospheric conditions

What are wavelengths in Basic Antenna Systems?

The space occupied by one full cycle of a wave at any given instant

What are wavelengths measured in?

Meters

What are the two types of waves?

Ground waves and sky waves

What are the two types of ground waves?

Surface waves and direct waves

What are surface waves?

Waves that travel along the ground

What are direct waves?

Waves that travel from the transmitting to the receiving antenna.

What are sky waves?

Radio waves returned to Earth from the ionosphere

From the earth to space what is the order of regions of the atmosphere?

Troposphere, Stratosphere, and Ionosphere

What is reflection?

Turing back a wave from the boundary of a medium

Reflection can be reflected up to 180 degrees depending on...

The surface, angle of incidence, polarization, and wave length

What is refraction?

Changing direction of the wave as it passes through a medium

Refraction is dependent on...

Density of ionization of the layer, frequency of the radio wave, and the angle at which the wave enters the layer

What is defraction?

Bending of radio waves as they pass an object

Which propagation factor allows for receiving of radio waves around the edges of an obstacles?

Diffraction

What are antenna systems?

A conductor used to radiate or collect electromagnetic energy

What three basic components make up antenna systems?

Coupling device, feeder and antenna

The size and shape of an antenna system is determined by...

Frequency of transmitter, amount of power radiated, and the direction of the receiving antenna

What must be at least one-half the wavelength of the frequency?

Radiation of electromagnetic energy

What are the operational characteristics of antenna systems?

Reciprocity of antennas and antenna gain

What type of antenna is independent of ground?

Hertz

What are the four types of special antennas?

Long wire, Slot, Skin, and Blade

electromagnetic radiation

the radiation associated with an electric and magnetic field; it varies periodically

type of electromagnetic fields

Electric (E) field and Magnetic (H) field

Electric field

exist around all electrically charged objects. force of voltage on antenna.
lines travel from positive to negative and lines connect at right angles.

magnetic field

produced by current field through a conductor. direction is determined by flow current

Induction field

continually expands and collapses
doesn't exist apart from the antenna

radiation field

the action of the induction field expanding and collapsing causes the radiation field to be released

induction field and radiation field

associated with every antenna

Vertical Polarization

E Field perpendicular to earths surface
greater signal strength along Earth's surface

horizontal polarization

the E field is parallel to the earths surface.
ideal for antennas at higher elevation

advantages of vertical polarization

stronger antenna, stronger receiver signal up to 50 MHz, and affected less by reflection.

advantages of horizontal polarization

minimizes interference from certain directions, less likely to be affected by man-made interference, and less loss in dense areas.

electromagnetic energy

includes infrared waves, light waves, and radio waves

radio

radio waves in the 3 KHz to 300 MHz

frequencies (RF)

electromagnetic waves transmit electromagnetic energy through free spaces

radio waves shape

basic shape is that of a sine wave
may or may not retain shape once radiated into space

Radio Wave Velocity

electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light
186,000 miles per second or 300,000 meters per second

what would slow down radio waves velocity

atmospheric conditions

radio wave wavelength

spaced occupied by one full cycle of a wave at any given instant
measured in meters

wave categories

ground wave and sky wave

ground wave

Radio waves that travel near the surface of the Earth

sky wave

Radio waves that are reflected back to Earth from the ionosphere
usually high frequency

Regions of the Atmosphere

troposphere, stratosphere, ionosphere

ionosphere

most important region for long distant point-to-point communication

Reflection

turning back of a wave from the boundary of a medium

Refraction

changing direction of the waves as it passes through a medium

Diffraction

bending of radio waves as they pass an object

Tropospheric Scattering

caused by turbulence in the troposphere

antenna system

a conductor used to radiate or collect electromagnetic energy

basic components of antenna systems

coupling, feeder, and antenna

antenna system size and shape

determined by frequency of transmitter, amount of power radiated, and direction of receiving antenna

Radiation of electromagnetic radiation

must be at least one-half the wavelength of the frequency

reciprocity of antennas

using one antenna for both transmission and reception

antenna gain

ration between directional propagation and total propagation

Hertz (Half Wave)

what type of antenna is independent of ground

marconi (quarter-waves)

grounded or connected to counterpoise, perpendicular to earth, one quarter wavelength, and resonates at same frequency as half-wave antenna

long wire antenna

at least one wavelength long, and used for frequencies up to twice that for which it was cut

slot antenna

radiator formed by narrow slot in metal surface. is one-half wavelength long. underside of a wing surface.

skin antenna

produced by flush-mounted antenna. electrically isolating portion of metal skin of the aircraft.

blade antenna

quarter-wave antenna fed through a base. low drag for external aircraft fuselage mounting.

JKO Aseptico Portable Scrub Sink Operator's Course

The Surgical scrub sink is designed to work with which of the following ?

ALL OF THE ABOVE :

Jerry cans
Bladder supply
Domestic supply

Which of the following are most likely the cause of a heating element to shut off

Select 2 answers :

-Tilt level breaker sensor triggered
-Heating breaker tripped

If the GFCI is tripped when the power is disconnected will the green LED illuminate when power is reconnected to the sink

Yes after GFC is reset

With the flow rate sit at high about how long will it take to fill the internal tank?

About 2 minutes

Which of the following sources is not an acceptable water source for the scrub sink?

Nearby natural resources

What is the appropriate temperature of the water in the scrub sink?

106 degrees Fahrenheit

How many Jerry cans are supplied?

None

Describe sink will operate properly with either a 110 V or 220 V power source without any modification

TRUE

JKO Aribex NOMAD Pro Dental X-Ray Apparatus Operator Course

Optional backscatter......

All of the above

Not a part of the preliminary check receiving a new unit

Determine if both handsets are charged

Operator can input custom user settings

True

First trigger squeeze does what?

Ready mode

Orange indicator lights on base

(INCORRECT)Trigger squeezed when placing(INCORRECT)

For added security store handset in separate area

True

How many exposures on a fully charged handset?

400

Yellow light with a radiation symbol

Currently conducting an exposure

"SYSTEM FAILURE" displayed

Turn off and back on

If you might be outside the protection zone

Lead apron

Handset may not charge over night

False

Collimator tube not perpendicular/90 degrees from DEXIS

Adjust angle of patient

Best way to prevent battery strength loss

Swap handsets daily

JKO Aribex NOMAD Pro Dental X-Ray Apparatus Maintainer's Course

3 Alara Concepts

Time, Shielding, Distance

Nomad handset battery is...

(INCORRECT)Nickel Cadmium(INCORRECT)Nickel Metal Hydride(INCORRECT)

New handset battery cycles

300 (full charge and discharge)

Only usable with digital systems

False

A tech deployed to Iraq...

1 Acclimate, 2 Inspect, 3 Functions Check, 4 Calibration Check

???

Handset Passed

???

Trigger is designed to be pressed and released to ready exposure

Assemble/Disassemble

False

???

Press and hold select and press patient

What tech bulletin or regulation

TB MED 521

When assembling

Should hear a click

Handset can stay in cradle for an indefinite amount of time

True

Acceptable KVP limits

54 to 66 KVP

???

Press and release trigger and green light

JKO Belmont Rapid Infuser Fluid Management System 2000 Operator's Course

at which flow rate will the FMS 2000 no longer heat fluids?

A: 50 ml/min
B: 10
C: 2.5
D: 25
E: 5

c & E

Which of the following solutions are acceptable for use when cleaning the pump?

A: Mild bleach solution
B: Hydrogen peroxide
C: Multipurpose cleaner
D: Ammonia solution

A & B

True or False: The disposable set has no expiration date and if undamgaed, may be used.

F

True or false: Because the FMS 2000 does not utilize an open heat source, it is acceptable to use it in the prescence of potentially flammable anesthetics.

F

What is the maximum achievabel flow rate for packed RBCs with a 16 gauge cannula?

A: about 400 ml/min
B: 750 ml/min
C: about 200 ml/min
D: less than 100 ml/min

C

While operting on battery power, what is the maximum infusion rate?

A: 50 ml/min
B: 5 ml/min
C: 750 ml/min
D: 250 ml/min

A

True or False: While cleaning or disinfecting the FMS 2000, it is acceptable to us butyl alcohol.

F

What is the maximum infusion rate for the FMS 2000?

A: 1000 ml/min
B: 750 ml/min
C: 500 ml/min
D: 250 ml/min

B

JKO Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM)

Define TCRM

using risk management concepts when time and resources are limited.

Identify terms used with TCRM

ABCD model.

What is the ABCD model?

Fundemental scientific principles, ability to focus individuals, increase their situational awareness.

What does A stand for?

A- Asses the situation

What does B stand for?

B- Balance Resources

What does C stand for?

C- Communicate

What does D stand for?

D- Do and Debrief

Situational Awareness (SA)

refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the current environment mirrors reality.

How many Risk Gauge colors are there?

4

What does Green mean?

Little chance of serious error.

What does Yellow mean?

Higher chance of serious error.

What does Red mean?

Very high chance of serious error.

What does Swooshing Arrow mean?

Return to good situational awareness.

Define Assessing the situation

In real time situation, it is essential to consider the event.

Define Balancing Resources

Make the correct decisions to mitigate risks.

Define Communication

Who needs to know? Who can help? Ensure everyone knows.

Define Do and Debrief

Do the mission and use the appropriate resources to mitigate risk.

How does Honor correlate with TCRM?

Keeping a keen sense of ethical conduct.

How does Courage correlate with TCRM?

The mental and moral strength to do whats right.

How does Commitment correlate with TCRM?

The day-to-day of every Navy man and women to work together as a team to improve the quality of their work.

JKO French-Mali Rapport - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

French is the language of government and academia.

True

Timbuktu is the capital of Mali.

False

Mali gained independence from France after a long insurgency.

False

The Malian economy relies heavily on mining.

True

The tourism industry of Mali revolves around safari tourism.

False

The constitution of Mali defines the country as a secular state.

True

The Great Mosque of Djenne is susceptible to the elements.

True

Beliefs in supernatural powers are considered heresy and evil by most Malians.

False

Tuareg rebels and allied militants protected Sufi Islamic shrines and tombs during the 2012-2013 conflict in Northern Mali.

False

The Family Code passed in 2011 by the Malian legislature made advances in securing and protecting women's rights.

False

Touching the right elbow with the fingertips is an offensive social gesture in Mali.

False

Malian women's possibilities to be on equal footing with men remain limited.

True

Domestic violence is a rare phenomenon in Mali.

False

Kola nuts play an important role in Malian hospitality customs.

True

Meat is affordable in Mali, and Malians eat it on a regular basis.

False

Poverty and conflict have driven rural migrants to Mali's cities in search of security and employment.

True

Mali stopped practicing slavery by the mid-20th century.

False

Traditional healers provide an alternative to the health care system.

True

With the help of international aid, Mali has established a successful country-wide public education system.

False

Quality restaurants and nightlife are concentrated in Bamako.

True

Drought, political instability, and climate change have all contributed to a historic low in Malian cereal production.

False

The Malian government relies on foreign mining companies to mine the country's vast deposits of gold.

False

The Ebola virus reached Mali during the 2013-2016 Ebola outbreak and claimed several victims.

True

In rural Mali, a gathering crowd at the scene of a vehicle accident can create a dangerous situation.

True

The Malian government continues to lay minefields along the border to stop the infiltration of al Qaeda and ISIS fighters.

False

Muslim women in Mali do not veil.

True

Malian law prohibits domestic violence.

False

Although religious and civil marriages are both practiced, only civil marriage are given legal recognition and protection under the law

False

Economically disadvantaged Malian parents often send their children to earn money in order to improve the family's financial standing.

True

Underage marriage is still practiced, even though the practice is prohibited by Malian law.

True

A griot is a Malian magistrate judge, who presides over a civil marriage.

False

In Mali, women do not have maternity leave.

False

Polygamy is prevalent across Mali.

True

Mali has one of the highest infant mortality rates in the world.

True

In 2012, the Malian government passed a law banning female genital mutilation (FGM

False

Due to Mali's size and the condition of most rural roads, domestic flights are the preferred method of cross-country travel for Malians.

False

The University of Timbuktu is one of the oldest institutions of higher education in the world.

True

The Malian government has started funding Islamic schools, or madrassas, to provide students with basic religious education.

False

Mali does not have a rail service.

False

International aid and education reforms ended illiteracy in Mali.

False

Bamako's main market is called the Mercato.

False

Mali is the leading producer of beef in West Africa

True

ATMs throughout Bamako typically accept Visa and MasterCard.

False

Visitors to Mali can rent cars with or without drivers.

True

Due to Mali's generally flat landscape, automobile and motorcycle use is widespread throughout the country.

False

Peanuts are an important part of Malian cuisine.

True

Owing to the country's French colonial past, Malians use Western-style utensils when eating meals.

False

Malian men and women throughout the country often wear a long, flowing, wide-sleeved robe.

True

Mali was one of the last African nations to gain independence from France, in the mid-1970s.

False

The left hand is considered unclean in Mali.

True

Islamic extremist groups based in Northern Mali have become a security concern.

True

The majority of Malians are in favor of a secular government.

False

Beliefs and practices of traditional African religions are part of Christian and Muslim worship practices.

True

The Muslim majority of Mail are intolerant toward religious minorities.

False

Tabaski, also known as Eid al-Adha, is one of the most important religious holidays in Mali.

True

The Islamic High Council controls all branches of government.

False

The Tuareg are a people of Berber decent, distinguished by their bold blue clothing.

True

Mali is an arid country covered entirely by the Sahara Desert.

False

The majority of the population is concentrated in northern Mali

False

There are more cell phone subscriptions than people in Mali.

True

JKO Multi-Domain Operations (MDO) Overview

MDO Operational Environment

*Contested in all domains
*Increasingly lethal, expanded battlefield
*Increasingly complex environment
*Challenged deterrence

MDO Central Idea

Army forces, as an element of the Joint Force, conduct Multi-Domain Operations to prevail in competition; when necessary, Army forces penetrate and dis-integrate enemy anti-access and area denial systems and exploit the resultant freedom of maneuver to achieve strategic objectives (win) and force a return to competition on favorable terms

Russian and Chinese A2AD create

Multiple Layers of Stand-Off

China and Russia in Competition

Creating stand-off by separating the U.S. and partners politically with ...
*National- and district-level forces
*Unconventional warfare
*Information warfare
*Conventional forces: Long-, mid-, and short-range systems
...to fracture alliances and win without fighting

China and Russia in Armed Conflict

Creating stand-off by separating the Joint Force in time, spaces, and function with ...
*National-and district-level forces
*Conventional forces: Long-, mid-, and short-range systems
*Unconventional warfare
*Information warfare
...to win quickly with a surprise, fait accompli campaign

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #1

How does the Joint Force compete to enable the defeat of an adversary's operations to destabilize the region, deter the escalation of violence, and, should violence escalate, enable a rapid transition to armed conflict?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #2

How does the Joint Force penetrate enemy anti-access and area denial systems throughout the depth of the Support Areas to enable strategic and operational maneuver?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #3

How does the Joint Force dis-integrate enemy anti-access and area denial systems in the Deep Areas to enable operational and tactical maneuver?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #4

How does the Joint Force exploit the resulting freedom of maneuver to achieve operational and strategic objectives through the defeat of the enemy in the Close and Deep Maneuver Areas?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #5

How does the Joint Force re-compete to consolidate gains and produce sustainable outcomes, set conditions for long-term deterrence, and adapt to the new security environment?

Tenets of MDO

Calibrated Force Posture
Multi-Domain Formations
Convergence (time, space, capabilities)

Calibrated Force Posture

*Force presence forces (contact and blunt forces)
*Expeditionary forces (blunt and surge forces)
*National-level capabilities
*Authorities

Multi-Domain Formations

*Conduct independent maneuver
*Employ cross-domain fires
*Maximize human potential

Convergence (time, space, capabilities)

*Cross-domain synergy
*Layered options
*Mission command/disciplined initiative

Convergence at Echelon: Theater Army

*Provides AOR-tailored capacity
*Maintains enduring initiative
*Sets the theater
*Enables expeditionary maneuver
*Responds immediately to regional emergencies
*Protects bases, key nodes, and networks

Convergence at Echelon: Field Army

*Executes competition against a near-peer
*Conducts all-domain operational preparation of the environment
*Provides credible deterrence
*Commands multiple corps
*Enables partners and SOF
*Employs long-range fires

Convergence at Echelon: Corps

*Tailors to multiple missions and roles (e.g. JTF)
*Coordinates deep cross-domain maneuver
*Commands multiple divisions
*Shapes close areas: enemy mid-range fires and IADS
*Defeats long-range fires

Convergence at Echelon: Division

*Commands multiple BCTs and enablers
*Converges cross-domain capabilities in the close area
*Shapes deep maneuver area
*Executes expeditionary and deep maneuver
*Dominates the close fight

Compete to expand the competitive space

*Enable defeat of information and unconventional warfare
*Conduct intelligence and counter adversary reconnaissance
*Demonstrate credible deterrence

Penetrate strategic and operational stand-off

*Neutralize enemy long-range systems
*Contest enemy maneuver forces
*Maneuver from operational and strategic distances

Dis-integrate the enemy's anti-access and area denial systems

*Defeat enemy long-range systems
*Neutralize enemy short-range systems
*Conduct independent maneuver
*Conduct deception

Exploit freedom of maneuver to defeat enemy objectives

*Defeat enemy mid-range systems
*Neutralize enemy short-range systems
*Maneuver to isolate and defeat enemy maneuver forces

Re-compete to consolidate and expand gains

*Secure terrain and populations physically
*Enable sustainable outcomes with partners
*Set conditions for long-term deterrence
*Re-calibrate force posture
*Secure the initiative

MDO Implications for the Army

*Enhanced and broader need for combined arms maneuver
*Operating at echelon
*Converging cross-domain capabilities
*Maximizing human potential
*14 required Army capability sets