Nclex Uworld Practice Questions

Question: 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may occur.

Answer: The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which trend in vital signs if the intracranial pressure is rising?

1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure
2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure
3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure
4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

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Question: 2, 3, 4
The nurse should maintain ICP by elevating the head of the bed 15 - 20 degrees and monitoring neurologic status. An ICP >15 mmHg with 20 to 25 mmHg as upper limits of normal indicates increased ICP, and the nurse should notify the HCP. Coughing and range of motion exercises will increase ICP and should be avoided in the early postoperative stage.

Answer: The nurse has established a goal to maintain intracranial pressure (ICP) within the normal range for a client who had a craniotomy 12 hours ago. What should the nurse do? Select all that apply.

1. Encourage the client to cough to expectorate secretions.
2. Elevate the head of the bed 15 - 20 degrees.
3. Contact the HCP if ICP is >15 mmHg.
4. Monitor neurologic status using the Glasgow Coma Scale.
5. Stimulate the client with active range-of-motion exercises.

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Question: 3
The clear drainage must be analyzed to determine whether it is nasal drainage or CSF. The nurse should not give the client tissues because it is important to know how much leakage of CSF is occurring. Compressing the nares will obstruct the drainage flow. It is inappropriate to tilt the head back, which would allow the fluid to drain down the throat and not be collected for a sample. It is inappropriate to administer an antihistamine because the drainage may not be from postnasal drip.

Answer: What should the nurse do first when a client with a head injury begins to have clear drainage from the nose?

1. Compress the nares
2. Tilt the head back
3. Collect the drainage
4. Administer an antihistamine for postnasal drip

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Question: 4
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fractures. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.

Answer: A client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. Which finding would alert the nurse that cerebrospinal fluid is present?

1. Fluid is clear and tests negative for glucose.
2. Fluid is grossly blood in appearance and has a pH of 6
3. Fluid clumps together on the dressing and had a pH of 7
Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose.

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Question: 1, 2, 4
Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. It involves weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. These clients are also aphasic: unable to discriminate words and letters. They are generally very cautions and get anxious when attempting a new task. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in hemiparesis. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.

Answer: The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis from a stroke. Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply.

1. The client is aphasic.
2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body.
3. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs.
4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue.
5. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently
6. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently, but is able to feed and bathe himself or herself without assistance.

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Question: 4
Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse also should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and does client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses, if they are available.

Answer: The nurse has instructed the family of a client with stroke who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. Which statement suggests that the family understand the measures to use when caring for the client?

1. We need to discourage him from wearing eyeglasses.
2. We need to place objects in his impaired field of vision.
3. We need to approach him from the impaired field of vision.
4. We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field.

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Question: 3
Thrombolytic enzyme agents are used for clients with a thrombotic stroke to dissolve emboli, this reastablishing cerebral perfusion. They do not increase vascular permeability, cause vasoconstriction, or prevent further hemorrhage.

Answer: What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug therapy for stroke?

1. Increased vascular permeability
2. Vasoconstriction
3. Dissolved emboli
4. Prevention of hemorrhage

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Question: 3, 1, 4, 2
To protect the client from falling, the nurse first should ease the client to the floor. It is important to protect the head and maintain a patent airway since altered breathing and excessive salivation can occur. The assessment of the postictal period should include level of consciousness and vital signs. The nurse should record details of the seizure once the client is stable. The events preceding the seizure, timing with descriptions of each phase, body parts affected and sequence of involvement, and autonomic signs should be recorded.

Answer: The nurse sees a client walking in the hallway who begins to have a seizure. What should the nurse do in order of priority from first to last? All options must be used.
1. Maintain a patent airway.
2. Record the seizure activity observed.
3. Ease the client to the floor.
4. Obtain vital signs.

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Question: 1, 2, 5, 6
Seizure precautions may vary from agency to agency, but they generally have some common features. Usually, an airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client has an intravenous access in place to have a readily accessible route if antiseizure medications must be administered, and as part of the routine assessment the nurse should be checking the patency of the catheter. The use of padded tongue blades is highly controversial, and they should not be kept at the bedside. Forcing a tongue blade into the mouth during a seizure more likely will harm the client who bites down during seizure activity. Risks include blocking the airway from improper placement, chipping the client's teeth, and subsequent risk of aspirating tooth fragments. If the client has an aura before the seizure, it may give the nurse enough time to place an oral airway before seizure activity begins.

Answer: The nurse is instituting seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measures should the nurse include in planning for the client's safety? Select all that apply.

1. Padding the side rails of the bed.
2. Placing an airway at the bedside.
3. Placing the bed in the high position
4. Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed
5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside
6. Flushing the intravenous catheter to ensure that the site is patent.

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Question: 3
After a supratentorial surgery, the head is kept at a 30-45 degree angle. The head and neck should not be angled either anteriorly or laterally but rather should be kept in a neutral (midline) position. This promotes venous return through the jugular veins, which will help prevent a rise in intracranial pressure.

Answer: The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a craniotomy and has a supratentorial incision. The nurse should place the client in which position postoperatively?

1. Head of bed flat, head and neck midline.
2. Head of bed flat, head turned to the nonoperative side
3. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head and neck midline
4. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head turned to the operative side

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Question: 3. Place the client on droplet precautions.

The client with suspected bacterial meningitis should be placed on droplet precaution isolation until the causative agent has been identified and appropriate treatment is initiated. Meningococcal meningitis and Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis are highly transmissible to others, and the client must remain on droplet isolation until these can be ruled out. Precautions can usually be discontinued 24 hours after beginning antibiotic therapy. Viral meningitis and other types of bacterial meningitis (ie, other than meningococcal meningitis) usually do not require droplet precautions.

(Option 1) Although assessment is a priority and meningeal signs should be checked, the nurse can only safely perform these assessments once droplet precautions are in place.

(Options 2 and 4) A peripheral IV catheter should be inserted to provide fluids. Subsequently, preparation for lumbar puncture is needed. However, placing the client on isolation is a priority to protect the nurse and other clients and care providers.

Educational objective:
The client with suspected bacterial meningitis should be placed on droplet precaution isolation until the causative agent has been identified and appropriate treatment is initiated.

Answer: A nurse is evaluating an acutely ill client with suspected meningitis. The nurse should take what action first?

1. Check for Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs
2. Establish IV access
3. Place the client on droplet precautions
4. Prepare the client for lumbar puncture

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Question: 3
Clear, colorless fluid draining from the nose or ears after head trauma is suspicious for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage (Option 3). When the drainage is clear, dextrose testing can be used to determine if the drainage is CSF. However, the presence of blood would make this test unreliable as blood also contains glucose.

This child is at risk for intracerebral bleeding and meningitis. Vascular compromise may occur with even minimal head trauma; therefore, the nurse should evaluate any changes in level of consciousness and temperature as well as assess the head and neck for subcutaneous bleeding. The nurse should anticipate a CT scan of the head and neck and prophylactic antibiotics.

(Option 1) Iron ingestion is the major concern with vitamin toxicity in children. However, children's formulations contain minimal or no iron. As a result, ingestion of an unknown quantity is unlikely to cause serious toxicity. This child should be seen second.

(Option 2) A low-grade fever is common after immunizations; this child can be seen last.

(Option 4) Although infection and pain are important, this child can be seen third.

Educational objective:
The child with head trauma who is leaking cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is at risk for meningitis and intracerebral bleeding. If the drainage is clear, a dextrose test is used to determine if the drainage is CSF. The nurse should assess for signs of bleeding (eg, change in level of consciousness) and infection (eg, increased temperature) and anticipate a CT scan and prophylactic antibiotics.

Answer: Four children are brought to the emergency department. Which child should be assessed first?

1. A 13-month-old who ingested an unknown quantity of children's multivitamins
2. A 15-month-old with a fever of 100.5 F (38.1 C) after being vaccinated
3. A 3-year-old with a forehead laceration and colorless nasal drainage
4. A 4-year-old with enlarged tonsillar lymph nodes who is crying in pain

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Question: 4
A ruptured cerebral aneurysm is a surgical emergency with a high mortality rate. Cerebral aneurysms are usually asymptomatic unless they rupture; they are often called "silent killers" as they may go undetected for many years before rupturing without warning signs. The distinctive description of a cerebral aneurysm rupture is the abrupt onset of "the worst headache of my life" that is different from previous headaches (including migraines). Immediate evaluation for a possible ruptured aneurysm is critical for any client experiencing a severe headache with changes in or loss of consciousness, neurologic deficits, diplopia, seizures, vomiting, or a stiff neck. Early identification and prompt surgical intervention help increase the chance for survival.

(Options 1, 2, and 3) A change in level of consciousness, increased blood pressure, or a feeling of illness should be investigated but alone does not indicate an emergency.

Educational objective:
Sudden onset of a severe headache described as "the worst headache of my life" is characteristic of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and should be treated as an emergency.

Answer: A client comes to the emergency department with diplopia and recent onset of nausea. Which statement by the client would indicate to the nurse that this is an emergency?

1. "I am very tired, and it's hard for me to keep my eyes open."
2. "I don't feel good, and I want to be seen."
3. "I have not taken my blood pressure medicine in over a week."
4. "I have the worst headache I've ever had in my life."

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Question: 1, 3, 5, 6
The Valsalva maneuver (straining during defecation) involves holding the breath while bearing down on the perineum to pass a stool. Straining to have a bowel movement is to be avoided in clients recently diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure, stroke, or head injury as straining increases intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure, which raises the intracranial pressure (Option 1).

The vagus nerve is stimulated when bearing down; this temporarily slows the heart and decreases cardiac output, leading to potential cardiac complications in clients with heart disease (Option 3).

Straining increases intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure and should be avoided in clients diagnosed with portal hypertension related to cirrhosis due to the risk of variceal bleeding (Option 5).

The maneuver increases intraocular pressure and is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma and recent eye surgery (Option 6).

(Option 2) The otherwise healthy client recovering from reconstructive augmentation mammoplasty is not at risk for complications related to the Valsalva maneuver.

(Option 4) The client recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer is not at risk for complications related to the Valsalva maneuver.

Educational objective:
The Valsalva maneuver is contraindicated in the client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure, stroke, head injury, heart disease, glaucoma, eye surgery, abdominal surgery, and liver cirrhosis.

Answer: The clinic nurse educator is developing a teaching plan for the following 6 clients. The nurse should instruct which client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver when defecating? Select all that apply.

1. 22-year-old man with a head injury sustained during a college football game
2. 30-year-old woman recently hospitalized for reconstructive augmentation mammoplasty
3. 56-year-old man 2 weeks post myocardial infarction
4. 68-year-old woman recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer
5. 74-year-old man with portal hypertension related to alcohol-induced cirrhosis
6. 82-year-old woman 1 week post cataract surgery

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Question: 3
Unexpected and projectile vomiting without nausea can be a sign of increased ICP, especially in the client with a history of increased ICP. The unexpected vomiting is related to pressure changes in the cranium. The vomiting can be associated with headache and gets worse with lowered head position. The most appropriate action is to obtain a full set of vital signs and contact the HCP immediately.

(Option 1) Documentation is important, but it is not the priority action.

(Option 2) The head of the bed should be raised, not lowered, for clients with suspected increased ICP. Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees helps to drain the cerebrospinal fluid via the valve system without lowering the cerebral blood pressure.

(Option 4) The vomiting is caused not by nausea but by pressure changes in the cranium. Anti-nausea medications are often not effective. Decreasing intracranial pressure will help the vomiting.

Educational objective:
Notify the HCP of signs/symptoms of increased ICP, including unexpected vomiting. The vomiting is often projectile, associated with headache, and gets worse with lowering the head position.

Answer: A client is admitted to the hospital for severe headaches. The client has a history of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which has required lumbar punctures to relieve the pressure by draining cerebrospinal fluid. The client suddenly vomits and states, "That's weird, I didn't even feel nauseated." Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

1. Document the amount of emesis
2. Lower the head of the bed
3. Notify the health care provider (HCP)
4. Offer anti-nausea medication

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Question: 2, 3, 5
A concussion is considered a minor traumatic brain injury and results from blunt force or an acceleration/deceleration head injury. Typical signs of concussion include:

A brief disruption in level of consciousness
Amnesia regarding the event (retrograde amnesia)
Headache
These clients should be observed closely by family members and not participate in strenuous or athletic activities for 1-2 days. Rest and a light diet are encouraged during this time.

(Options 1 and 4) The following manifestations indicate more serious brain injury and are not expected with simple concussion:

Worsening headaches and vomiting (indicate high intracranial pressure)
Sleepiness and/or confusion (indicate high intracranial pressure)
Visual changes
Weakness or numbness of part of the body
Educational objective:
Expected neurological changes with a concussion include brief loss of consciousness, retrograde amnesia, and headache. These clients should be observed closely by family members and not participate in strenuous or athletic activities for 1-2 days.

Answer: The nurse is caring for a client after a motor vehicle accident. The client's injuries include 2 fractured ribs and a concussion. The nurse notes which of the following as expected neurological changes for the client with a concussion? Select all that apply.

1. Asymmetrical pupillary constriction
2. Brief loss of consciousness
3. Headache
4. Loss of vision
5. Retrograde amnesia

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Question: 2
Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges covering the brain and spinal cord. The key clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis include fever, severe headache, nausea/vomiting, and nuchal rigidity. Other symptoms include photophobia, altered mental status, and other signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

In a hypotensive client with sepsis, the priority of care is fluid resuscitation to increase the client's blood pressure (Option 2).

In addition to IV fluid administration, interventions and prescriptions for a client with sepsis and meningitis may include:

Administer vasopressors.
Obtain relevant labs and blood cultures prior to administering antibiotics.
Administer empiric antibiotics, preferably within 30 minutes of admission (Option 1). This client will continue to decline without antibiotic therapy.
Prior to a lumbar puncture (LP), obtain a head CT scan as increased ICP or mass lesions may contraindicate a LP due to the risk of brain herniation (Option 4).
Assist with a LP for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination and cultures (Option 3). CSF is usually purulent and turbid in clients with bacterial meningitis. CSF cultures will allow for targeted antibiotic therapy.
Educational objective:
For bacterial meningitis with sepsis, fluid resuscitation is the priority. Blood cultures should be drawn before starting antibiotics. After a head CT scan is performed to rule out increased intracranial pressure and mass lesions, cerebrospinal fluid cultures should be drawn via lumbar puncture.

Answer: An adult client with altered mental status and fever has suspected bacterial meningitis with sepsis. Blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first?

1. Administer IV antibiotics
2. Infuse bolus of IV normal saline
3. Prepare to assist with lumbar puncture
4. Transport client for head CT scan

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Question: 2
Levetiracetam (Keppra) is a medication often used to treat seizures in various settings. It has minimal drug-drug interactions compared to phenytoin and is often the preferred antiepileptic medication.

(Option 1) Chemotherapy and radiation therapy would kill tumor cells and reduce tumor size.

(Option 3) Hospitalized clients and clients with malignancy are at higher risk for venous thromboembolism. These clients would benefit from anticoagulation (eg, heparin, enoxaparin, rivaroxaban, apixaban).

(Option 4) Dexamethasone, a corticosteroid, is used to treat cerebral edema associated with a brain injury/tumor by decreasing inflammation.

Educational objective:
Levetiracetam (Keppra) is a medication often used to treat seizures in various settings. Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and cerebral edema in clients with brain injury and tumors.

Answer: A client with a brain tumor is admitted for surgery. The health care provider prescribes levetiracetam. The client asks why. What is the nurse's response?

1. "It destroys tumor cells and helps shrink the tumor."
2. "It prevents seizure development."
3. "It prevents blood clots in legs."
4. "It reduces swelling around the tumor."

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Question: Cushing's triad is related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Early signs include change in level of consciousness. Later signs include bradycardia, increased systolic blood pressure with a widening pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diastolic), and slowed irregular (Cheyne-Stokes) respirations. Cushing's triad is a later sign that does not appear until the ICP is increased for some time. It indicates brain stem compression.

The skull cannot expand after the fontanels close at age 18 months, so anything taking up more space inside the skull (eg, hematoma, tumor, swelling, etc.) is a concern for causing pressure on the brain tissue/brain stem and potential herniation. In this scenario, hidden head trauma causing an intracranial bleed must be ruled out with diagnostic testing. The client's intoxication could blunt an accurate history or presentation of a head injury.

(Option 1) Atropine is used to stimulate the sinoatrial node in bradycardia with systemic symptoms. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be obtained prior to administering atropine. In this client, there is no evidence of a cardiac etiology or systemic symptoms of poor perfusion/circulation from the bradycardia.

(Option 2) Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker that is a potent vasodilator. However, all components must be considered in this scenario as to the etiology of the hypertension rather than just treating that sign. Ruling out a cerebral cause of the hypertension is most important.

(Option 4) The nurse would continue to perform neurologic assessments (including GCS). However, it is more important to obtain appropriate diagnostic tests and initiate treatment for the changing neurologic symptoms than to just monitor and document. In addition, the nurse should be performing these assessments more frequently than hourly in this rapidly changing client.

Educational objective:
Cushing's triad/reflex indicates increased intercerebral pressure. Classic signs include bradycardia, rising systolic blood pressure, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations (such as Cheyne-Stokes).

Answer: A highly intoxicated client was brought to the emergency department after found lying on the sidewalk. On admission, the client is awake with a pulse of 70/min and blood pressure of 160/80 mm Hg. An hour later, the client is lethargic, pulse is 48/min, and blood pressure is 200/80 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse anticipate taking next?

1. Administer atropine for bradycardia
2. Administer nifedipine for hypertension
3. Have CT scan performed to rule out an intracranial bleed
4. Perform hourly neurologic checks with Glasgow coma scale (GCS)

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Question: A client with a neurological injury (eg, head trauma, stroke) is at risk for cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a life-threatening situation. The client with atrial fibrillation may also be taking anticoagulants (eg, warfarin, rivaroxaban, apixaban, dabigatran), making a life-threatening intracranial bleed even more dangerous. The nurse should perform a neurologic assessment (eg, level of consciousness, pupil response, vital signs) immediately.

(Option 1) Autonomic dysreflexia (eg, throbbing headache, flushing, hypertension) is a life-threatening condition caused by sensory stimulation that occurs in clients who have a spinal cord injury at T6 or higher. This is not the priority assessment as this client's injury is at L3. This client likely has acute urinary retention and needs catheterization.

(Option 2) Phenytoin toxicity commonly presents with neurologic manifestations such as gait disturbance, slurred speech, and nystagmus. These are expected symptoms and therefore are not a priority.

(Option 3) A brain tumor can also cause increased intracranial pressure; clients report morning headache, nausea, and vomiting. Dexamethasone (Decadron) can be prescribed short-term to decrease the surrounding edema. A tumor usually grows more slowly than a possible hematoma and is therefore not the priority assessment.

Educational objective:
Constant headache, decreased mental status, and sudden-onset emesis indicate increased intracranial pressure.

Answer: The nurse receives report for 4 clients in the emergency department. Which client should be seen first?

1. 30-year-old with a spinal cord injury at L3 sustained in a motor cycle accident who reports lower abdominal pain and difficulty urinating
2. 33-year-old with a seizure disorder admitted with phenytoin toxicity who reports slurred speech and unsteady gait
3. 65-year-old with suspected brain tumor waiting to be admitted for biopsy who reports throbbing headache and had emesis of 250 mL
4. 70-year-old with atrial fibrillation and a closed-head injury waiting for brain imaging who reports a headache and had emesis of 200 mL

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Nclex Vital Signs

Question: 1. A nurse assesses an oral temperature for an adult patient. The patient's temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F). What term would the nurse use to report this temperature?

a. Febrile

b. Hypothermia

c. Hypertension

d. Afebrile

Answer: d. Afebrile

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Question: 2. A nurse is assessing the vital signs of patients who presented at the emergency department. Based on the knowledge of age-related variations in normal vital signs, which patients would the nurse document as having a normal vital sign? Select all that apply.

a. A 4-month old infant whose temperature is 38.1°C (100.5°F)

b. A 3-year old whose blood pressure is 118/80

c. A 9-year old whose temperature is 39°C (102.2°F)

d. An adolescent whose pulse rate is 70 bpm

e. An adult whose respiratory rate is 20 bpm

f. A 72-year old whose pulse rate is 42 bpm

Answer: a. A 4-month old infant whose temperature is 38.1°C (100.5°F)

d. An adolescent whose pulse rate is 70 bpm

e. An adult whose respiratory rate is 20 bpm

f. A 72-year old whose pulse rate is 42 bpm

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Question: 3. A patient who is febrile may lose body heat through perspiration. The nurse recognizes that this is an example of what mechanism of heat loss?

a. Evaporation

b. Convection

c. Radiation

d. Conduction

Answer: a. Evaporation

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Question: 4. The rectal temperature, a core temperature, is considered to be one of the most accurate routes. In which cases would taking a rectal temperature be contraindicated? Select all that apply.

a. A newborn who has hypothermia

b. A child who has pneumonia

c. An older patient who is post myocardial infarction (heart attack)

d. A teenager who has leukemia

e. A patient receiving erythropoietin to replace red blood cells

f. An adult patient who is newly diagnosed with pancreatitis

Answer: a. A newborn who has hypothermia

c. An older patient who is post myocardial infarction (heart attack)

d. A teenager who has leukemia

e. A patient receiving erythropoietin to replace red blood cells

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Question: 5. While taking an adult patient's pulse, a nurse finds the rate to be 140 beats/min. What should the nurse do next?

a. Check the pulse again in 2 hours.

b. Check the blood pressure.

c. Record the information.

d. Report the rate to the primary care provider.

Answer: d. Report the rate to the primary care provider.

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Question: 6. A patient complains of severe abdominal pain. When assessing the vital signs, the nurse would not be surprised to find what assessments? Select all that apply.

a. An increase in the pulse rate

b. A decrease in body temperature

c. A decrease in blood pressure

d. An increase in respiratory depth

e. An increase in respiratory rate

f. An increase in body temperature

Answer: a. An increase in the pulse rate

e. An increase in respiratory rate

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Question: 7. Two nurses are taking an apical-radial pulse and note a difference in pulse rate of 8 beats per minute. The nurse would document this difference as which of the following?

a. Pulse deficit

b. Pulse amplitude

c. Ventricular rhythm

d. Heart arrhythmia

Answer: a. Pulse deficit

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Question: 8. The nurse instructor is teaching student nurses about the factors that may affect a patient's blood pressure. Which statements accurately describe these factors? Select all that apply.

a. Blood pressure decreases with age.

b. Blood pressure is usually lowest on arising in the morning.

c. Women usually have lower blood pressure than men until menopause.

d. Blood pressure decreases after eating food.

e. Blood pressure tends to be lower in the prone or supine position.

f. Increased blood pressure is more prevalent in African Americans.

Answer: b. Blood pressure is usually lowest on arising in the morning.

c. Women usually have lower blood pressure than men until menopause.

e. Blood pressure tends to be lower in the prone or supine position.

f. Increased blood pressure is more prevalent in African Americans.

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Question: 9. A patient is having dyspnea. What would the nurse do first?

a. Remove pillows from under the head

b. Elevate the head of the bed

c. Elevate the foot of the bed

d. Take the blood pressure

Answer: b. Elevate the head of the bed

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Question: 10. A student nurse is learning to assess blood pressure. What does the blood pressure measure?

a. Flow of blood through the circulation

b. Force of blood against arterial walls

c. Force of blood against venous walls

d. Flow of blood through the heart

Answer: b. Force of blood against arterial walls

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Question: 11. Prioritization: Place the following descriptions of the phases of Korotkoff sounds in order from Phase I - Phase V.

a. Characterized by muffled or swishing sounds that may temporarily disappear; also known as the auscultatory gap

b. Characterized by distinct, loud sounds as the blood flows relatively freely through an increasingly open artery

c. The last sound heard before a period of continuous silence, known as the second diastolic pressure

d. Characterized by the first appearance of faint but clear tapping sounds that gradually increase in intensity; known as the systolic pressure

e. Characterized by a distinct, abrupt, muffling sound with a soft, blowing quality; considered to be the first diastolic pressure

Answer: d. Characterized by the first appearance of faint but clear tapping sounds that gradually increase in intensity; known as the systolic pressure

a. Characterized by muffled or swishing sounds that may temporarily disappear; also known as the auscultatory gap

b. Characterized by distinct, loud sounds as the blood flows relatively freely through an increasingly open artery

e. Characterized by a distinct, abrupt, muffling sound with a soft, blowing quality; considered to be the first diastolic pressure

c. The last sound heard before a period of continuous silence, known as the second diastolic pressure

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Question: 12. A patient has a blood pressure reading of 130/90 mm Hg when visiting a clinic. What would the nurse recommend to the patient?

a. Follow-up measurements of blood pressure

b. Immediate treatment by a physician

c. No action, because the nurse considers this reading is due to anxiety

d. A change in dietary intake

Answer: a. Follow-up measurements of blood pressure

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Question: 13. A nurse is documenting a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse interprets the 120 to represent:

a. The rhythmic distention of the arterial walls as a result of increased pressure due to surges of blood with ventricular contraction

b. The lowest pressure present on arterial walls while the ventricles relax

c. The highest pressure present on arterial walls while the ventricles contract

d. The difference between the pressure on arterial walls with ventricular contraction and relaxation

Answer: c. The highest pressure present on arterial walls while the ventricles contract

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Question: 14. It is important to have the appropriate cuff size when taking the blood pressure. What error may result from a cuff that is too large or too small?

a. An incorrect reading

b. Injury to the patient

c. Prolonged pressure on the arm

d. Loss of Korotkoff sounds

Answer: a. An incorrect reading

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Question: 15. A patient has intravenous fluids infusing in the right arm. When taking a blood pressure on this patient, what would the nurse do in this situation?

a. Take the blood pressure in the right arm

b. Take the blood pressure in the left arm

c. Use the smallest possible cuff

d. Report inability to take the blood pressure

(Taylor 621-622)Taylor, Carol. Fundamentals of Nursing. Wolters Kluwer Health, 10/2014. VitalBook file.

Answer: b. Take the blood pressure in the left arm

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One (1) additional point per night when booking a Latitudes Insider Offer (LATITUDE promo code must be on the reservation when guests sail for points to be awarded).
One (1) additional point per night for reserving a full fare Suite or in The Haven (not including Mini-Suites)*
*Note: Points for booking a suite are only applicable when the full fare suite is booked when the reservation is initially made. Suite Points do not apply to upgrades/upsells.

How many points are needed to reach each tier level? Tier Rewards Points
Bronze 1 - 19
Silver 20 - 47
Gold 48 - 75
Platinum 76+
Special milestone gifts are provided for guests who achieve 250, 500, 700 and 1000 points.

==================================================

Question: Allergies

Answer: We can accommodate guests with these dietary needs.
They should be advised to notify us of the allergy so that the
information can be sent to the ship.
Once on board the guest should meet with the Group Service
Coordinator/Access Officer or the Restaurant Manager to further
discus their dietary need.
Soy milk and Lactaid milk are available on board.
Guests may only bring non-perishable, pre-packaged, prepared
snacks to be stored in the guest's cabin (juice boxes, cookies,
crackers, etc.).
Guests can not bring pre-cooked food (in any stage: frozen, chilled,
etc.), food that needs to be cooked/prepared, processed or stored
by ship staff.
Action Required: add special request, then e-mail Access Desk.

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Question: Managing Calls for Guests with Disabilities

Answer: When a reservation is booked for a guest with medical needs, if necessary,
please send an e-mail to accessdesk@ncl.com with the following information:
The subject line MUST include the ship, sail date, reservation
number, and the guest's name.
The body of the e-mail MUST include as much detail about the
guests medical issue as possible as well as a contact number for the
guest.
Providing this level of detail will allow the Access Desk to handle these emails
as efficiently as possible.
The Access Desk will then contact the travel agent/guest.

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Question: Blind/Sight Impaired, Service Dogs

Answer: In accordance with the ADA, Norwegian Cruise Line DOES NOT accept
"Emotional Support" dogs as service dogs.

must book at least two weeks in
advance

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Question: Diabetic Guests

Answer: Guest must bring their own medication (insulin, needles/syringes and testing
supplies).
Guests can obtain a Sharp's container on board form the Guest Service

Only request a refrigerator if guest is taking insulin and sailing on Norwegian
Spirit (all other ship have refrigerator on the cabins).

Recommend (not mandatory) that guest bringing needles/syringes on board,
bring a doctor's note or prescription

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Question: Pregnancy

Answer: Norwegian will not accept guests who will have entered their 24th week of
pregnancy by the time their travel with Norwegian Cruise Line concludes.

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Question: Special Needs at Sea

Answer: 1-800-513-4515

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Question: Booking a Wheelchair Accessible Stateroom

Answer: 1. After a ship, sailing date and category have been determined, the Stateroom
availability will display. Click on
2. Check off the box next to Wheelchair Accessible in the available attributes
and click on
The system will display a list of staterooms designed for Wheelchair
guests.
3. Check off the desired stateroom and click Select.

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Ncoems Drug List

Question: Adenosine

Answer: 6/12/12mg RIVP

==================================================

Question: Albuterol

Answer: 2.5-5mg in 3cc x3

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Question: Amiodarone

Answer: VF/PVT: 300mg, rp@150
VTW/P: 150mg in 100cc D5W over 10min

==================================================

Question: Atropine

Answer: 0.5mg ev 3-5min up to 3mg

==================================================

Question: Calcium Chloride

Answer: 1g

==================================================

Question: Valium

Answer: 5mg, 2mg ev 3-5min up to 10mg

==================================================

Question: Cardizem

Answer: 20mg (1/2 dose if >60)

==================================================

Question: Dopamine

Answer: 2-20 mcg/kg/min, titr to BP 90 sys

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Question: Epinephrine 1:1,000

Answer: 0.3mg

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Question: Epinephrine 1:10,000

Answer: 1mg, rp ev 3-5min

==================================================

Question: Etomidate

Answer: 0.3mg/kg

==================================================

Question: Fentanyl

Answer: 50-75mcg, 25mcg ev 20min, max 200mcg

==================================================

Question: Lasix

Answer: 40mg

==================================================

Question: Glucagon

Answer: 1-2mg IM, rp in 15min if gc≥69

==================================================

Question: Haldol

Answer: 2-5mg IM

==================================================

Question: Atrovent

Answer: 0.5mg per neb

==================================================

Question: Toradol

Answer: 30mg IV or 60mg IM

==================================================

Question: Lidocaine

Answer: 1.5mg/kg

==================================================

Question: Magnesium Sulfate

Answer: 2g over 10min(Respiratory)
over 2min(Torsades)
over 2-3min(Eclampsia)

==================================================

Question: Solu-medrol

Answer: 125mg

==================================================

Question: Versed

Answer: (Seizure) 2-2.5mg ev 3-5mins to max 10mg, 5mg IM

==================================================

Question: Morphine

Answer: 4mg, 2mg ev 5-10min, max 10mg

==================================================

Question: Narcan

Answer: 0.4-2mg

==================================================

Question: Nitroglycerin

Answer: 0.4mg SL ev 5min

==================================================

Question: Zofran

Answer: 4mg, rp in 15min

==================================================

Question: Phenergan

Answer: 12.5mg, rp 1x as needed

==================================================

Question: Rocuronium

Answer: 1mg/kg

==================================================

Question: Sodium Bicarb

Answer: 50mEq

==================================================

Question: Succinylcholine

Answer: 1.5mg/kg

==================================================

Question: Vasopressin

Answer: 40 units

==================================================

Question: Vecuronium

Answer: 0.1mg/kg

==================================================

Question: Calcium Gluconate

Answer: 2g

==================================================

Compare And Contrast Drugs And Supplements

Question: Sasha has been working out for a few months now. She has a schedule that requires her to go to the gym every day. Lately, she noticed that her blood pressure is up and she is feeling irritable. What action would benefit her the most?

Answer: C. She should adjust her workout so she has days off to recover.

==================================================

Question: Both drugs and dietary supplements can cause serious medical problems if used incorrectly.

Answer: True

==================================================

Question: When lifting weights or spotting a weight lifter, the individual must always keep a straight back.

Answer: True

==================================================

Question: What are five possible reasons for taking supplements or drugs as part of a workout regiment?

Answer: Five possible reasons for taking supplements or drugs as part of a a workout regimen are to improve muscle growth, muscle recovery, workout intensity, muscle endurance, and weight control.

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Question: The responsibilities of a spotter include assisting, motivating, critiquing, and planning.

Answer: False

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Question: During your workout, your spotter stands next to you and discusses the workout routine with a personal trainer. The trainer demonstrates a few exercises that you could add to your routine. This is __________.

Answer: B. inappropriate behavior because they are no longer watching you all the time

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Question: Describe at least three measures that ensure safety and prevent injury during a workout.

Answer: Answers will vary but should include three of the following ideas: follow prescribed sets and reps, allowing sufficient time for recovery in each muscle group, getting enough sleep, making sure to get proper nutrition, listening to your body, and knowing your limits.

==================================================

Question: Compare and contrast drugs and supplements. Give two ways that they are similar and two ways that they are different.

Answer: Drugs are not allowed to be sold until they are approved by the FDA, while supplements go right to the market and deal with problems after they are sold. Drugs are put through a series of stringent tests before they are approved, while supplements are sold with no testing on effectiveness or safety. Both can be used to treat conditions. Both can be used to enhance workouts.

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Question: In order to prevent injury during your weight-training session, it is necessary to __________.

Answer: B. Perform muscular fitness testing

==================================================

Question: While carefully watching the lifter, the spotter stands with her feet together and her hands ready. In terms of safety, this could BEST be described as __________.

Answer: A. poor technique because her feet should be positioned differently

==================================================

Compare And Contrast Dehydration Synthesis And Hydrolysis

Question: Image: Carbon

Answer: A chemical element, in Co2, carbon monoxide, it is a necessary element for organisms to live- atomic number is 6. This is found in coal.

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Question: Example: Chirality

Answer: Your left and right hands are an example of chirality, they are mirror images but they are not identical.

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Question: Compare and Contrast: Dehydration Synthesis vs. Hydrolysis

Answer: Dehydration synthesis occurs when there is a chemical reaction that involves the loss of a water molecule from the reacting molecule. Dehydration reactions are a subset of condensation reactions. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction where the interaction of a compound with water. Dehydration synthesis occurs when two compounds are being taken out (H20) and hydrolysis is when H20 is put back into the substance.

==================================================

Question: Compare Contrast: Polysaccharide and Monosaccharide

Answer: Polysachharide are large molecules that are formed by monosachharide, and monosachharides are just simple sugar molecules. These are in polysachharides, and polysachharides contain monosachharides.

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Question: Image: Glucose

Answer: Glucose is a simple sugar found in plants, an important energy source, which is a component of many carbohydrates.

==================================================

Question: Image: Proteins

Answer: Proteins are macromolecules that contain C,H,N,O, and are used in body to repair and build muscle- and for growing

==================================================

Question: Compare/Contrast: Carboxyl Group vs. Hydroxyl Group

Answer: A carboxyl group is consisting of carbonyl group (C=0) with a hydroxyl group (O-H) attached to the same carbon atom. A hydroxyl group bonded covalently to the carbon of a carbonyl group (-C=0) and produces a carboxyl group (-COOH) that is the defining group of a carboxylic acid. When the -OH group participates in an ionic bond, (-OH-) anion is called the "hydroxide" ion.

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Question: Definition: Benedict's Reagent

Answer: A chemical solution that changes color in the presence of glucose and other reducing sugars (used in clinical urine tests for diabetes). It is a mixture of sodium potassium, citrate, sodium carbonate, and copper sulfate.

==================================================

Question: Image: Fatty Acids

Answer: Fatty acids are a group of a long chain of hydrocarbon derived from the breakdown of fats (through a process called hyrdolysis). It has a single carboxylic group and aliphatic tail.

==================================================

Question: Example: Tetravalent

Answer: Carbon is a tetravalent because it has a valence (relative combing capacity of an atom) of four.

==================================================

Question: Example: Functional Groups

Answer: Alkane is a chemical with a predictable interactoion of hydrogen molecules and carbon molecules.

==================================================

Question: Image: Carbohydrate

Answer: Compound made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms; type of nutrient that is the major source of energy for the body. Bread contains carbohydrates.

==================================================

Question: Compare and Contrast: Alpha glycosidic linkage and Beta glycosidic linkage

Answer: Alpha glycosidic linkage is the linkage where many-hundreds- of glucose units form starches, and beta glycosidic linkage is the linkage where equal numbers of glucose are used to form cellulose, which one cannot digest. The linkages are both linkages, but when you can see them they go opposite ways, and beta makes cellulose and alpha makes starch.

==================================================

Question: Image: Lactose

Answer: Formed by linkage of glucose and galactose, you need lactose to break apart linkage- not sweet

==================================================

Question: Image: Amino Acids

Answer: Contains carboxyl and amine functional groups which are parts of amino acids that get linked together, you need 20 amino acids to live properly. The image above is one of 20 amino acids one needs, which is phenylalanine.

==================================================

Question: Compare and Contrast: Dipeptide vs. Polypeptide

Answer: Dipeptide are two monomers joined by removing hydrogen from one amine group and a hydroxide ion from hydroxide ion from the carboxyl group of another atom, one water molecule is formed. Polypetptides are long chains of amino acids that make proteins, whereas a dipeptide contains two amino acid residues.

==================================================

Question: Definition: Lugol's Solution

Answer: A brown solution of iodine and potassium iodide in water or alcohol that are used in medicine.

==================================================

Question: Compare Contrast: Saturated vs. Unsaturated

Answer: Saturated fats contain single bonds which are stronger than the double or triple bonds unsaturated fats have. Saturated fats also contain carbon atoms bonded to four other atoms via single bonds. Saturated fats tend to be solid and dense, like butter, but unsaturated fats tend to be liquids or oils, like margarine, and often come from plants or aquatic animals.

==================================================

Question: Definition: Triglyceride

Answer: An energy-rich compound (an ester) made up of a single molecule of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acid, and serves as a major component of animal and plant oils and fat

==================================================

Question: Definition: Electronegativity

Answer: Measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. The Pauling scale is the most commonly used.

==================================================

Question: Definition: Polymerization

Answer: Process of reacting monomer molecules together in a chemical reaction to form polymer chains of three-dimensional networks.

==================================================

Question: Example: Dissaccharide

Answer: "Double sugars" -Maltose. Maltose has two sugars, glucose and glucose. It is formed by dehydration synthesis between monosaccharides.

==================================================

Question: Example: Monomer

Answer: Glucose is a monomer because it can combine to form the polymer cellulose. A monomer is a small chemical unit that makes up a polymer

==================================================

Question: Example: Dimer

Answer: Dicyclopentadiene is an asymmetrical dimer of two cyclopentadiene molecules that have reacted in a Diels-Alder reaction to give the product. A dimer is the resultant of molecules brought together.

==================================================

Question: Compare Contrast: Peptide Linkages vs. Ester Linkages

Answer: A peptide linkage is a covalent bond formed between two amino acids and an ester linkage is a strong bond that is formed between water and alcohol, these are both bonds between two atoms but they are different because they are using different substances.

==================================================

Question: Example: Lipids

Answer: Meat fat is a lipid. It is non-polar, and is comprised of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms, the ratio of H:O is greater than 2:1, and they are used in the body for storing things long-term. They are comprised of three fatty acid monomers linked to a glycerol molecule. Meat fat does this.

==================================================

Question: Image: Sudan IV

Answer: This is the color of Sudan IV, which is a dye used for the staining of lipids.

==================================================

Question: Example: Isomerization

Answer: N-butane is transformed into isobutane, and that is when the components of N-butane are moved around and form isobutane, they have the same components, just in a different structure.

==================================================

Question: Image: Starch

Answer: Potatoes contain starch, which is a polysaccharide that functions as a carbohydrate store- is important to have in the human diet.

==================================================

Question: Definition: Amine Groups

Answer: amine is an organic compound containing nitrogen; any of a group of compounds formed from ammonia by replacement of one or more hydrogen atoms by organic radicals.

==================================================

Question: Biuret Reagant

Answer: This color violet is made when testing for peptides using the biuret reagant, and when there are peptides, the color of the alkaline solution turns violet.

==================================================

Question: Example: Glycerol

Answer: In anifreeze, there is a sweet, colorless liquid that is usually obtained by the saponification of natural fats and oils, called glycerol

==================================================

Question: Example: Esterification

Answer: A reaction of an alcohol with an acid to produce ester and water, like with alkanol and alkonic acid this happens

==================================================

Compare And Contrast Conductors And Insulators

Question: Define what electrical energy is, and provide an example of it in everyday life. (Answers Vary)

Answer: Electrical energy is energy carried by moving electrons in an electric conductor.
Ex: Phone charger

==================================================

Question: How is an electrical current like a river of water? Compare and describe. (Answers Vary)

Answer: Because the electrons are carried through the current. The river flows in one direction.

==================================================

Question: Identify what an ion is and contrast it to a regular atom (balanced or imbalanced # of protons/electrons? What kind of force?)

Answer: Ion is an atom or molecule with a net electric charge due to the loss or gain of one or more electrons. Atom is the smallest particle of a chemical element that can exist.

==================================================

Question: Compare and Contrast conductors and insulators, correctly identify materials on a chart, and give examples in real life.

Answer: Conductors are material that permit electrons to flow freely from particle to particle.
Insulators are materials that impede the free flow of electrons from atom to atom and molecule to molecule.

==================================================

Question: List insulators

Answer: Dry air
Wood
Glass
Rubber
Plastic

==================================================

Question: List semi-conductors

Answer: Germanium
Silicon

==================================================

Question: List conductors

Answer: Silver
Copper
Aluminum
Iron
Mercury
Carbon
Water

==================================================

Question: Describe how electrical energy travels through materials that is a conductor.

Answer: Conductors are materials that allow charges to FLOW through freely. Insulators are materials that halt or stop the flow of charges

==================================================

Question: Evaluate how induction results in polarization, and provide the argument as how polarization is NOT the same as electrical charge.

Answer: They can be induced into moving from one part of an object to another During induction, the positive charges and negative charges separate into opposite sides of the object This separation is called polarization

==================================================

Question: Compare and contrast the difference between current and voltage, and provide units for each.

Answer: The measure of potential energy of the electrons in a circuit.

==================================================

Question: Explain how resistance relates to current and voltage, and express it in the formula for ohms law.

Answer: The current is directly proportional to the voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance

==================================================

Question: Compare and contrast the difference between direct and alternating current

Answer: Direct current only flows in one direction, alternating current changes direction periodically.

==================================================

Question: Compare and contrast the difference between series and parallel circuitry

Answer: Series shares a common path parallel shares two

==================================================

Compare And Contrast Codon And Anticodon

Question: Codon vs anticodon

Answer: A codon is the triplet sequence in the messenger RNA (mRNA) transcript which specifies a corresponding amino acid (or a start or stop command). An anticodon is the corresponding triplet sequence on the transfer RNA (tRNA) which brings in the specific amino acid to the ribosome during translation. The anticodon is complementary to the codon, that is, if the codon is AUU, then the anticodon is UAA. There are no T (Thymine) nitrogen bases in mRNA. It's replaced by U (Uracil).

==================================================

Question: Cell Cycle

Answer: Interphase; Mitotic phase; mitosis;prophase; metaphase; anaphase; telophase; cytokinesis

==================================================

Question: stages of mitosis

Answer: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

==================================================

Compare And Contrast Chemical And Physical Properties

Question: Compare and contrast physical and chemical properties of matter.

Answer: Both physical and chemical properties of matter can be used to identify a substance. Physical properties can be observed without changing the substance, however, chemical properties can only be observed when the substance is undergoing a chemical change.

==================================================

Question: Define properties:

Answer: physical and chemical characteristics of matter used to describe or identify a substance

==================================================

Question: Identify at least three physical properties of matter.

Answer: State of matter, Color, Melting point, boiling point,
Odor, Density, conductivity

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Question: Identify at least three chemical properties of matter.

Answer: Flammability, Corrosion, Oxidation, Reactivity with water

==================================================

Question: How do mixtures differ from pure substances?

Answer: A pure substance is an element or compound (elements chemically combined) with definite composition and properties. Mixtures are two substances physically combined.

==================================================

Question: Physical properties

Answer: Characteristic that can be observed or measured without changing the substance

==================================================

Question: bulk quantities

Answer: Large quantities

==================================================

Question: intensive physical property

Answer: is a bulk property and does not depend on the amount of matter.

==================================================

Question: extensive physical property

Answer: is proportional to the amount of material.

==================================================

Question: Identify if the following is a physical or chemical property: Heating a liquid and measuring the temperature:

Answer: physical

==================================================

Question: Identify if the following is a physical or chemical property: Ice turns into a liquid:

Answer: physical

==================================================

Question: Identify if the following is a physical or chemical property: Mix two substances and bubbles form:

Answer: chemical

==================================================

Question: Identify if the following is a physical or chemical property: A banana turns brown after a few weeks on the counter:

Answer: chemical

==================================================

Question: Identify if the following is a physical or chemical property: melting of butter

Answer: physical

==================================================

Question: How do mixtures differ from pure substances?

Answer: A pure substance is an element or compound (elements chemically combined) with definite composition and properties.

==================================================

Question: Why after mixing two substances and leaving the liquid to settle, some of the substance settles on the bottom is NOT a pure substance?

Answer: Because you PHYSICALLY mixed two substances

==================================================

Question: Why after mixing two substances and leaving the liquid to settle, no substance settled is NOT a pure substance?

Answer: Because even though no substance settles you still physically combined two substances

==================================================

Question: Why after evaporating a liquid a white powder is left behind is not a pure substance?

Answer: Because after evaporating a substance was left behind showing you mixed two substances together

==================================================

Question: Identify if following is physical or chemical property: Ice turns into a liquid: physical

Answer: physical

==================================================

Question: Identify if following is physical or chemical property: Heating a liquid and measuring the temperature:

Answer: physical

==================================================

Question: Identify if following is physical or chemical property: Mix two substances and bubbles form:

Answer: chemical

==================================================

Question: Identify if following is physical or chemical property: A banana turns brown after a few weeks on the counter:

Answer: chemical

==================================================

Question: Identify if following is physical or chemical property: Butter melting:

Answer: physical

==================================================

Question: Chemical property

Answer: Characteristic that can only be observed or measured when atoms of matter rearrange during a chemical change

==================================================

Question: chemical reaction

Answer: The process by which one or more substances change to produce one or more different substances

==================================================

Question: Density

Answer: is the amount of mass per unit of volume.

==================================================

Question: What's the formula for density?

Answer: D= m/v

==================================================

Question: If an object has the mass of 192g and the volume of 32mL what would be its density?

Answer: 6g/mL

==================================================

Question: What is the difference between mass and weight?

Answer: Mass is the amount of matter in a material, while weight is a measure of how the force of gravity acts upon that mass.

==================================================

Question: If an object has a density of 1.15g/mL would it float or sink in water? Why?

Answer: Sink because its density is greater than water's which is 1 g/mL

==================================================

Question: If an object has a mass of 110 g and a volume of 8 mL what would be its density? (round to the nearest tenth)

Answer: 13.8g/mL

==================================================

Question: mass

Answer: A measure of how much matter is present in a substance

==================================================

Question: Each pure substance has characteristic ____________
and ____________ properties that can be used to describe it.
.

Answer: physical and chemical

==================================================

Question: When butter melts, the chemical properties of the substance are ____________.

Answer: the same

==================================================

Question: solubility

Answer: is the ability of a substance (the solute), to mix into a liquid (the solvent).

==================================================

Question: Exactly forty milliliters of water is measured out in a graduated cylinder. An object is submerged in the water. The level of the water rises to 63 milliliters. When taking the mass of the object on a triple-beam balance the three weights on the beams read: 100, 30, and 4.2.

Answer: Mass = 100 + 30 + 4.2 = 134.2g
63mL - 40mL = 23mL
134.2g/23mL= 5.83g/mL

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Question: An object is a regular, rectangular, and solid with dimensions of 5.0 cm by 4.0 cm by 3.0 cm. It has a mass of 30.0 grams.

Answer: mass= 30 g
5 x 4 x 3 = 60 ㎤
30g/60㎤ = 0.5g/㎤

==================================================

Compare And Contrast Cations And Anions

Question: Contrast Ionic vs. Covalent Bonds vs Metallic Bond

Answer: Ionic = transfer of electrons, and a chemical bond resulting from the attraction between positive and negative ions
Covalent= sharing electrons, no ion formation
Metallic = delocalize

==================================================

Question: What are the terms for positive and negative ions?

Answer: cations = positive (+)
anion = negative (-)

==================================================

Question: What is the octet rule?

Answer: main group elements gain or lose electrons to achieve a stable noble gases configuration (8 valence electrons, full s and p)

==================================================

Question: isoelectronic

Answer: having the same number of elections

==================================================

Question: Explain why noble gases are not likely to form chemical bonds.

Answer: Because they already have an electron configuration with a full, stable outer energy level.

==================================================

Question: Compare and contrast cations and anions.

Answer: Cations are formed from the loss of electrons and have a positive charge.
Anions are formed from the gain of electrons and have a negative charge.

==================================================

Question: Intramolecular Forces

Answer: Intromolecular: (forces between molecules)
- weaker than ionic or metallic bonds = molecules separate easier and have lower BP and MP. No ions present or mobile electrons = they are nonconductive of electricity.

Intermolecular:
- strength of network between the nonmetal atoms = very strong structure

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Compare And Contrast An Ecosystem And A Habitat

Question: What are the 5 levels of ecological organization

Answer: 1) invisual/ species
2)population
3)community
4)ecosystems
5) biosphere

==================================================

Question: What is the study of living and nonliving components of a system

Answer: Ecosystem ecology

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Question: Describe how a species is commonly defined. Explain why the common definition for species may be problematic for some organisms, such as bacteria

Answer: Species are commonly defined as problematic organisms like bacteria because they do not reproduce sexually. They are defined based on genetic similarity

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Question: What is community ecology, give examples

Answer: It's the study of interactions among species. For example, a Bee pollinating a flower

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Question: Is a fallen, rotting trees considered an abiotic or biotic factor

Answer: Biotic because it was once living even though it is now dead

==================================================

Question: Compare and contrast an ecosystem and a habitat

Answer: They both have living and nonliving factors living within them. But the difference is, is that habitats defend their boundaries by particular organisms whose habitat it is

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Question: Explain the importance of resources and suitable have attached to an organism

Answer: They need resources to live and suitable habitat to live. Their survival depends on ability of suitable habitat and resources

==================================================

Question: Name to Pacific elements of the golden toad cloud forest habitat

Answer: The forest soil and the plant life

==================================================

Question: Explain why organization is important to the study of ecology

Answer: Because they use the levels of ecological organization to study organisms and to see how they react

==================================================

Question: why are dead or decaying organisms still considered important parts of an ecosystem

Answer: They are taken in and used as essential materials for living organisms

==================================================

Question: What makes of an organisms habitat

Answer: The specific environment, including biotic and abiotic elements, around an organism makes up its habitat

==================================================

Question: What is the difference between abiotic factors and biotic factors

Answer: Biotic or living animals and organisms that can be dead but was once living. Abiotic factors or nonliving elements such as rocks sunlight or air

==================================================

Question: When the population size increases remain steady what is it a sign of

Answer: Healthy population

==================================================

Question: Explain why the passenger pigeon which was one of the most abundant bird in North America disappear completely

Answer: Because humans destroy their habitat and we hunted them which drove the species to extension within a few decades

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Question: Describe how you could determine the population size of a specific type of plant in a large forest without counting all the plants

Answer: They could use the sampling method. Count all of the plants in a small area and estimate how many plants are in the total population

==================================================

Question: What does populations density describe

Answer: How crowded the population is

==================================================

Question: Which piece of information is used along with population size to calculate population density

Answer: Area

==================================================

Question: How can hide population density be helpful to a population

Answer: It will be easier to group together and easier to find mates

==================================================

Question: How can high population density be harmful to a population

Answer: It could be harmful because more people would be fighting over resources and not as much room

==================================================

Question: Random distribution

Answer: Arranged in space with no pattern

==================================================

Question: Uniform distribution

Answer: Evenly spaced throughout areas

==================================================

Question: Clumped distribution

Answer: Individuals are arranged around sources of resources

==================================================

Question: Which type of population distribution is found most often in nature

Answer: Clumped distribution

==================================================

Question: Describe how to use an age structure diagram to determine how many males and females are in a population

Answer: You can look at the graph and see if there are more males or females. Also you can see how many are in what age category

==================================================

Question: What will happen to a population made up mostly of individuals that are past reproductive age

Answer: The population will decrease because there are no reproductives and not a lot of young people

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Question: What can you predict about a population with an age structure diagram that is shaped like a pyramid

Answer: That they have a healthy population and it will be increasing because there are a lot of young people and a small amount of old

==================================================

Question: Which way of describing a population would be more Informative in terms of availability resources population size of population density

Answer: Population density better indicate the quality of room and resources available, since it indicates how many organisms are living in a specific area

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Question: Describe how you might use population distribution to find sources of food or other resources used by a species

Answer: Population is often distribute themselves according to location of resources. And random or uniform distribution. Resources may be widely available. If a population is distributed in clumps these clubs will likely indicate the location of available resources

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Question: Explain the significance of age structure diagram in which the bars are short along one side and long on the opposite side

Answer: This indicates that the population consists mostly of either males or females. It may also indicate that the population will not be a successful and reproductive

==================================================

Question: Explain how a population would be affected when the birth rate is never get me higher than the death rate and there are no changes due to immigration or emmigration

Answer: It's a rapid increase in population

==================================================

Question: Describe how immigration and immigration affect the size of a population

Answer: I'm people emmigrate they leave so the population decreases. But when people immigrate they come so the population increases

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Question: Explain how migration causes population size to change cyclically over time

Answer: The rivals will cause an increase of population and then leaving will decrease population

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Question: Describe the shape of a graph curve indicating exponential growth and a graph indicating logistic growth

Answer: Exponential growth will be J shaped and logistic growth will be s shaped

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Question: Explain how the availability of resources and the environment is linked to exponential growth of a species

Answer: If there isn't enough resources exponential growth will increase

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Question: Describe how you can re-organize where the caring capacity for a population occurs on a logistic growth curve

Answer: When there is a dotted stable line

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Question: Compare and contrast exponential growth and logistic growth

Answer: Logistic growth is dealing with limiting factors. They both are dealing with population growth though

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Question: Explain how the current capacity for a population can change over time

Answer: If there aren't that many resources and the capacity will decrease but in years it can increase if more resources are there to support the population size

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Question: Out of these for options- climate change, disease, flood, predation- which are density - dependent

Answer: Disease and predation

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Question: Explain why a forest fire is considered to be a density/independent limiting factor

Answer: Because it is a catastrophic event that isn't affected by population density

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Question: Give two examples of organisms that differ greatly in there biotic potential

Answer: One example is an elephant and the office it would be a fish

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Question: List two factors that increase the growth rate of a population and two factors that decrease the growth rate of a population

Answer: 1) immigration, birthrate high
2) emigration, death rate high

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Question: Describe the effects that limiting factors and biotic potential have on a populations growth

Answer: Limiting factor slope population growth and determine the maximum amount of growth possible and a population. Biotic potential determines the maximum ability to produce offspring under ideal conditions

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Question: What place would only include biotic factors

Answer: Population

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Question: What is the equation that summarizes population growth

Answer: ( immigration+ Birth)-(emmigration+death)

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Question: How do scientist calculate population density

Answer: They divide the amount of organisms by the amount of land

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Question: What is the study of how organisms interact with each other and their environment

Answer: Ecology

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Question: What is a group of individuals that interbreed and produce fertile offspring

Answer: Species

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Question: What is members of a species that live in the same area at the same time

Answer: Population

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Question: What is all of the populations in a particular area

Answer: Community

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Question: What is an area of land that includes all of the living things and their physical environment within a particular area

Answer: Ecosystem

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Question: What is land that includes all parts of earth that host life, with all of that organism and environments

Answer: Biosphere

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Question: What are parts of an ecosystem that are living or used to be living

Answer: Biotic factor

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Question: What are parts of an ecosystem that have never been living

Answer: Abiotic factors

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Question: What are the specific environment in which an organism lives in

Answer: Habitat

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Question: Anything an organism needs including nutrition, shelter, breeding side, and mates

Answer: Recourses

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Question: What is describes the number of individual organisms present in a given population at a given time

Answer: Population size

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Question: What describes the number of individuals within a population per-unit area

Answer: Population density

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Question: What describes how organisms are arranged within an area

Answer: Population distribution

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Question: What describes the relate of numbers of organisms of each age within a population

Answer: Age structure

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Question: What are visual tools that scientists used to show the age structure of populations

Answer: Age structure

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Question: What is its proportion of males to females

Answer: Sex ratio

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Question: Showing how the likelihood of death varies with age, population ecologists use these graphs

Answer: Survivorship curves

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Question: What is the arrival of individuals from an outside given area

Answer: Immigration

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Question: What is the departure of individuals from a given area

Answer: Emigration

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Question: What is a seasonal movement into and out of an area

Answer: Migration

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Question: What is population growth rate formula

Answer: (Birthdate+immigration)-(death rate+emmigration)

Growth rate⬆️X100%

That number⬆️X100% = population growth rate

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Question: When a population increases by a fixed percentage each year

Answer: Exponential growth

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Question: What are characteristics of the environment that limit population growth

Answer: Limiting factors

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Question: What is the largest population size a given environment can sustainably support

Answer: Caring capacity

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Question: What describes how a populations initial exponential increase its load and finally stopped by limiting factors

Answer: Logistic growth

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Question: What is influenced changes with population density

Answer: Density dependent factor

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Question: Limiting factors whose influence is not affected by population density

Answer: Density independent factors

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Question: What is the maximum ability to produce offspring and ideal conditions

Answer: Biotic potential

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Compare And Contrast Accuracy And Precision

Question: accuracy

Answer: refers to how close a measurement is to the true or accepted value

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Question: precision

Answer: refers to how close a series of measurements are to one another

==================================================

Compare And Contrast A Quincha Home And A Tambo Home

Question: quincha houses

Answer: community works to make bamboo reeds and straw covered in mud homes with roofs made from mud tiles

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Question: tambo houses

Answer: beams and posts using vines to hold them together; roof is round and made from palm leaves

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Question: cronistas

Answer: historians who describe people/events from Spanish conquest

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Question: Downtown Panamá

Answer: skyscrapers in this part of Panama

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Question: Bri-Bri People

Answer: isolate themselves, called "hidden people"

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Question: Valdés and Gonzalo Fernandez de Oviedo

Answer: two people who wrote book of history

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Question: diablico sucio

Answer: little dirty devil; red and black jumper with colorful mask

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Question: diablico limpio

Answer: little clean devil; blankets of bright colors

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Question: Salt and Sugar

Answer: two main industries in Aguadulce

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Question: Tamale

Answer: popular breakfast food in Panama

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Question: Panamanian Balboa VS US dollar

Answer: worth exactly the same cuz easier for trade

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Question: Colón

Answer: first discovered Cuba, thought it was beautiful

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Question: Salt, Sugar, Shrimp, Ceramics Industries

Answer: Main industries in Panama

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Question: Estoy esuchando

Answer: I'm listening

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Question: Orchads

Answer: flowers found in rural homes of Santa Fe

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Compare And Contrast A Natural And Synthetic Resource

Question: Contrast synthetic and natural materials.

Answer: Natural resources are naturally forming and renewable, whereas synthetic materials are created by humans and are not found in nature.

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Question: Compare synthetic and natural materials.

Answer: Both synthetic materials and natural materials come from natural resources.

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Question: Synthetic Materials

Answer: Materials made by humans

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Question: Natural Resources

Answer: Resources that exist in the environment without human intervention

==================================================

Question: renewable

Answer: An energy resource, such as trees or wind, that is replaceable by natural means

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Question: nonrenewable

Answer: Not able to be replaced or regenerated in a short period of time

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Question: Which of the listed synthetic materials would require growing plants? (nylon, plastic, paper, or Teflon)

Answer: paper is made from plants

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Question: How do synthetic materials positively impact society?

Answer: Synthetic materials can positively impact society by creating strong durable materials and medicines.

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Question: How do synthetic materials negatively impact society?

Answer: Synthetic materials are not biodegradable meaning they do not break down easily causing pollution.

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Question: A chemical reaction occurs, the properties of substances before and after the substances interact are ________________________ because a new ______________ or ______________ has been made.

Answer: different because a new substance or substances

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Question: ____________________ can be chemically processed to make synthetic materials.

Answer: natural resources

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Question: __________________ is an example of a synthetic material because it is made from natural resources that have been chemically processed.

Answer: plastic

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Compare Ancient Greek Roads To Ancient Roman Roads

Question: Define civil engineering.

Answer: A civil engineer designs things that are used by the public, such as railroads and bridges.

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Question: Define architecture.

Answer: Architectures design private structures such as houses.

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Question: Describe the origination of the concept of architecture?

Answer: Architecture first appeared when humans turned towards agriculture and required houses when they settled down in one place.

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Question: In ancient times how were building materials chosen?

Answer: Building materials were chosen based on what was available and what would fit the climate of the area.

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Question: Give two examples of vernacular architecture.

Answer: Native Alaskans and others who lived near the Artic regions lived in igloos because ice was a plentiful building material that insulated heat.

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Question: Name and describe the type of system used to create many early buildings.

Answer: Post and lintel type construction was used to create many early buildings. Pillars were used to support a bar on top.

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Question: What was the purpose of the Egyptian pyramids? Mexican pyramids?

Answer: Egyptian pyramids were used as tombs for dead pharaohs. Mexican pyramids were used for sacrifices.

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Question: What kind of construction method was used to build the Parthenon? Made a simple sketch to illustrate.

Answer: Post and lintel was used. Pillars held up the beam to create entrance-like openings.

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Question: What problem in architecture led to this form of construction?

Answer: The desire for bigger heights led to this form of building.

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Question: Explain how an arch is created.

Answer: Stones were placed in a curved structure with a key stone on top.

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Question: How is the vault used in civil engineering?

Answer: Arches were placed next to one another.

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Question: Give an example of an arch and dome system.

Answer: Arches and domes had a keystone on top to support the circular structure.

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Question: Give an example of a modern material we have that was not available to the ancients. How did this restrict construction in ancient times?

Answer: In modern times, steel and reinforced concrete was invented.

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Question: What was the purpose of the Roman aqueducts?

Answer: They were used to transport clean water to cities and other densely populated areas.

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Question: Compare ancient Greek roads to ancient Roman roads.

Answer: Roman roads were layered to make it last longer. They were more durable and vast.

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Question: Describe an ancient Roman bridge.

Answer: Bridges had arches to support the walkway.

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Question: How did building materials and methods change after the Romans?

Answer: Iron and steel were created because it was lighter and stronger.

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Compare A Synergistic Effect With An Antagonistic Interaction

Question: Drugs

Answer: substances other than food that change the structure,function of the of body,or kind

==================================================

Question: medicines

Answer: drugs that are used to treat or prevent diseases or other conditions

==================================================

Question: Vaccines

Answer: A preparation of dead or weakened pathogens that are introduced no the body to stimulate an immune system

==================================================

Question: Prescription Medicines

Answer: Medicines that cannot be used without the written approval of licensed physician or nurse practitioner

==================================================

Question: OTC

Answer: drugs that are used to treat or prevent diseases or other conditions

==================================================

Question: Nicotine

Answer: the addictive drug found in tobacco

==================================================

Question: addictive drugs

Answer: A substance that causes physiological or psychological dependence

==================================================

Question: stimulant

Answer: A drug that increases the action of the central nervous system, the heart, and other organs

==================================================

Question: carcinogen

Answer: A cancer-causing substance.

==================================================

Question: Tar

Answer: A thick, sticky, dark fluid produced when tobacco burns

==================================================

Question: Carbon monoxide

Answer: A colorless, odorless, and poisonous gas

==================================================

Question: ETS

Answer: Air that has been contaminated by tobacco smoke.

==================================================

Question: mainstream smoke

Answer: The smoke exhaled from the lungs of a smoker

==================================================

Question: side stream smoke

Answer: The smoke from the burning end of a cigarette, pipe, or cigar.

==================================================

Question: ethanol

Answer: The type of alcohol in alcoholic beverages

==================================================

Question: depressants

Answer: A drug that slows the central nervous system

==================================================

Question: intoxication

Answer: The state in which the body is poisoned by alcohol or other substance and the person's physical and mental control is significantly reduced

==================================================

Question: binge drinking

Answer: Drinking five or more alcoholic drinks at one sitting

==================================================

Question: alcohol poisoning

Answer: A severe and potentially fatal physical reaction to an alcoholic overdose.

==================================================

Question: alcoholism

Answer: A disease in which a person has a physical or psychological dependence on drinks that contain alcohol

==================================================

Question: alcohol abuse

Answer: the excessive use of alcohol

==================================================

Question: BAC

Answer: The amount of alcohol in a person's blood expressed as a percentage

==================================================

Question: sobriety

Answer: living without alcohol

==================================================

Question: Identify the types of medicines that fight pathogens. What types of medicines prevent disease?

Answer: antibiotics antiviral and anti fungal

==================================================

Question: Compare a synergistic effect with an antagonistic interaction.

Answer: Synergistic interaction is the effect of 2 chemicals taken together being greater than the sum of their separate effect at the same doses.Antagonistic is the effect of 2 chemicals taken independently of each other

==================================================

Question: What is the addictive drug in tobacco?

Answer: nicotine

==================================================

Question: List 3 types of toxic substances found in cigarette smoke. Why are these substances harmful?

Answer: tar , carbon monoxide and carcinogen. Can cause lung problems

==================================================

Question: Explain 4 ways using tobacco immediately affects your body.

Answer: Brain chemistry changes, respiration and hart rte increases , the sense of taste is dulled and appetite decreases and users have bad breath , yellowed teeth, and smelly hair,skin,and clothes.

==================================================

Question: What influences how fast a person becomes intoxicated?

Answer: body size, gender, food, rate of intake, amount and medicine.

==================================================

Question: Explain how alcohol acts as a depressant on the central nervous system.

Answer: such as breathing and the gag reflex that prevents choking, may be suppressed

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Question: What can happen as a result of binge drinking?

Answer: it can impair a drinker's body system and mental abilities

==================================================

Compare A Physical Change With A Chemical Change

Question: Physical Change

Answer: A substance does not CHANGE what the substance will be

==================================================

Question: Chemcial Change

Answer: A reaction will be in the substance, which makes another substance

==================================================

Question: How are Physical change and chemical Change different ?

Answer: Physical and chemical change are different because a physical change stays the same and does not change the substance, where as chemical change makes the substances react and makes another substance.

==================================================

Compare 41 Calories To 410 Kcal

Question: Nucleotides contain sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base. Which of the following is a nitrogen base?

Answer: guanine

==================================================

Question: What are the chemical subunits that make up proteins?

Answer: amino acids

==================================================

Question: Identify the statement below that is true about chemical reactions.

Answer: Exothermic reactions tend to release heat energy to the surrounding environment.

==================================================

Question: You find a blog post written by a student on a university website about photosynthesis. Assess the reliability of this source.

Answer: It may be reliable because they cited multiple peer-reviewed studies from scientific journals.

==================================================

Question: The movement of water, containing no solute, across semi-permeable cellular membranes through aquaporins is known as?

Answer: osmosis

==================================================

Question: Distinguish between smooth endoplasmic reticulum and rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to its surface.

==================================================

Question: When comparing plant cells to animal cells, which organelle is only present in plant cells?

Answer: cell wall

==================================================

Question: Invertebrates lack which organ system?

Answer: skeletal

==================================================

Question: Select two organs in the digestive system that provide only mechanical digestion of food.

Answer: -esophagus
-anus

==================================================

Question: Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the heart through veins. The heart then pumps the deoxygenated blood through pulmonary arteries to the lungs. In the lungs, the deoxygenated blood gets oxygen from air in the lungs, and the carbon dioxide is removed. The oxygenated blood is then returned to the heart through the pulmonary veins before being sent to the body through the main artery, the aorta.
Based on the above passage, identify the two body systems that interact together to achieve the described behavior.

Answer: respiratory and circulatory

==================================================

Question: Identify the location within a plant cell where the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place.

Answer: the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast

==================================================

Question: Compare 41 Calories to 410 kcal (1 kcal = 1,000 calories).

Answer: 41 Calories is less than 410 kcal

==================================================

Question: Identify the byproduct of lactic acid fermentation.

Answer: lactic acid

==================================================

Question: The energy in ATP is stored in the chemical bond to a(n)

Answer: phosphate group.

==================================================

Question: The mutation shown in the sequence below can be categorized as which type?
Original DNA sequence: A T A C G G T A G C A A T A T G C C A T C G T T
Mutated DNA sequence: A T C G G T A G C A A T A G C C A T C G A A

Answer: deletion mutation

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Question: A tall, heterozygous pea plant is cross-pollinated with another tall, heterozygous pea plant. Use a Punnett square to determine the probability that the offspring is a tall, homozygous pea plant.

Answer: 25%

==================================================

Question: Distinguish between the lytic and lysogenic cycles of viruses.

Answer: The viral genome incorporates into the host genome during the lysogenic cycle.

==================================================

Question: Why are common cold viruses difficult to cure?

Answer: The viral genome mutates very quickly.

==================================================

Question: Identify the answer choice that correctly orders the types of cells from least to most differentiated.

Answer: totipotent stem cells → pluripotent stem cells → multipotent stem cells → neuron

==================================================

Question: Why are there different types of cells?

Answer: Gene expression is different between different specialized cells.

==================================================

Question: The cells in your body often look different and perform different functions, but they all have the same

Answer: DNA

==================================================

Question: You need to prepare for an exam on mitosis. You search for models of mitosis to help you. What kind of model should you choose?

Answer: a model that illustrates how a cell divides into two identical cells

==================================================

Question: The following list of events happens during meiosis: Prophase I: Crossing over between homologous chromosomes occurs.
Metaphase I: Tetrads line up at the metaphase plate.
Anaphase I: Tetrads are separated.
Telophase I: Nuclear envelopes reform around the separated chromosomes.
Prophase II: Chromosomes condense.
Metaphase II: Chromosomes line up at metaphase plate.
Anaphase II: Sister chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes.
Telophase II: Nuclear envelopes reform around the daughter chromosomes.
Identify the answer choice that correctly lists the events from above that lead to new genetic combinations in the gametes.

Answer: 1 and 2

==================================================

Question: Identify the mutation below that would be passed on to a living, fertile offspring if it happened in a parent.

Answer: an insertion mutation in an egg cell that deactivates a gene for hair color

==================================================

Question: Methylation is an example of

Answer: epigenetics

==================================================

Question: A scientist observes a population of cheetahs on the plains in southern Africa and noticed that cheetahs have very little genetic variation. The scientists claims that the cheetahs are susceptible to extinction as a result of climate change. What is the name of the effect the scientist observed and why is it a concern ?

Answer: Bottleneck effect, because environmental stresses affecting one cheetah could affect them all

==================================================

Question: Identify the scenario that could potentially result in new combinations of DNA in the offspring of the individual.

Answer: A pair of homologous chromosomes in a sperm cell fail to separate during meiosis.

==================================================

Question: Body size in mice (length from nose to base of tail) is controlled in part by genetics. The following data shows the number of mice grouped by lengths:

Based on this data and your knowledge of inheritance patterns, identify the inheritance pattern that this trait follows in mice.

Answer: polygenic

==================================================

Comparativo De Athletic

Question: mayor que

Answer: older than

==================================================

Question: menor que

Answer: younger than

==================================================

Question: tan alto como

Answer: as tall as

==================================================

Question: más alto

Answer: taller

==================================================

Question: tan rápido como

Answer: as fast as

==================================================

Question: más rápido

Answer: faster

==================================================

Question: mejor que

Answer: better than

==================================================

Question: peor que

Answer: worse than

==================================================

Question: el menor/la menor

Answer: the youngest

==================================================

Question: el mayor/la mayor

Answer: the oldest

==================================================

Question: el mejor/la mejor

Answer: the best

==================================================

Question: el peor/la peor

Answer: the worst

==================================================

Question: más atlético

Answer: more athletic

==================================================

Question: más guapo

Answer: more handsome

==================================================

Question: más barato

Answer: cheaper

==================================================

Question: más caro

Answer: more expensive

==================================================

Question: menos caro

Answer: less expensive

==================================================

Question: más generoso

Answer: more generous

==================================================

Question: más inteligente

Answer: more intelligent

==================================================

Question: menos inteligente

Answer: less intelligent

==================================================

Question: más tacaño

Answer: more stingy

==================================================

Question: más oscuro

Answer: darker

==================================================

Question: más sencillo

Answer: simpler

==================================================

Question: más claro

Answer: lighter

==================================================

Question: más elegante

Answer: more elegant

==================================================

Question: menos elegante

Answer: less elegant

==================================================

Question: más delicioso

Answer: more delicious

==================================================

Question: más cómico

Answer: funnier

==================================================

Question: más simpático

Answer: nicer

==================================================

Question: más tranquilo

Answer: calmer

==================================================

Question: menos tranquilo

Answer: less calm

==================================================

Question: tan barato como

Answer: as cheap as

==================================================

Question: tan caro como

Answer: as expensive as

==================================================

Question: tan atlético como

Answer: as athletic as

==================================================

Question: tan cómico como

Answer: as funny as

==================================================

Question: tan elegante como

Answer: as elegant as

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